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"A time is coming and has now come..."?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Jesus is Lord, Jun 10, 2004.

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  1. Jesus is Lord

    Jesus is Lord New Member

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    Jesus said in John 4:23
    "Yet a time is coming and has now come...".
    In John 5:25 He said
    "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is..."

    Jesus says that a time is coming but it´s also already there. I believe that this refers to an "overlapping" of the dispensations. Because although Jesus hasn´t died on the cross yet He forgave sins etc. It seems to me that the gospel are kind of an exception where dispensations are concerned.

    Anyway, my question is if this can be or is it just a Hebrew way of saying "The time is here." or something like that.

    God bless.

    [ June 10, 2004, 01:42 PM: Message edited by: Jesus is Lord ]
     
    #1 Jesus is Lord, Jun 10, 2004
  2. Grasshopper

    Grasshopper Active Member
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    It is my view that the NT was written during the transition period between the ending of the Old Covenant and the beginning of the New. Your first verse is a reference to worshiping in the physical Temple(O.C.), but soon worship will be in the spiritual Temple(N.C.). The second verse is speaking of N.C. salvation where the dead are made alive.
     
    #2 Grasshopper, Jun 10, 2004
  3. Jesus is Lord

    Jesus is Lord New Member

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    So "a time is coming and has now come" is not just a Jewish way to express something?
     
    #3 Jesus is Lord, Jun 10, 2004
  4. Grasshopper

    Grasshopper Active Member
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    I don't think so. However someone who is more familiar with Hebrew idioms might help us out.
     
    #4 Grasshopper, Jun 10, 2004
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