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Acts 12:4 should say "Easter" and here's why:

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Alexandra Spears, Jul 14, 2003.

  1. Alexandra Spears

    Alexandra Spears New Member

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    When Herod took Peter, it indicates in Acts 12:3 that he did this DURING the days of unleavened bread.

    The Passover was on the 14th of the first month, and the days of unleavened bread started on the 15th--the day after.

    When Peter was captured the Passover had come and gone. Herod was waiting for HIS holiday, Easter, to be over. And the apostles never observed Easter. Some people say Herod waited until after Passover to keep from offending the Jews. Two reasons why this is wrong: the timeline stated above, and the fact that Herod didn't care if they got mad!

    The timeline proves that the King James translators were right in their translation.
     
  2. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Ah, so the Greek is wrong. Gotcha. [​IMG]
     
  3. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Maybe you misread the Greek. Or You read the wrong Greek. :rolleyes:
     
  4. aefting

    aefting New Member

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    Sorry, no variant here, except for the variance between the KJV and Scripture.

    Andy
     
  5. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    This is one of the "best" KJVO arguments, IMHO. The amount of twisting that is required to try to prove that the word for Passover should be translated two different ways is truly astonishing.
     
  6. Gunther

    Gunther New Member

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    Just a fact to insert here, "Passover" was technically one day, but was spoken of as the entire event. Thus it included all three of those holidays together. So, the KJV is still wrong.
     
  7. Anti-Alexandrian

    Anti-Alexandrian New Member

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    Tommyrot! Alexandra Spears hit the nail on the head.No wresting of Scriptures here,read the passage carefully;Herod would have had to wait a whole year to get rid of peter.Context people,CONTEXT.
     
  8. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Maybe you misread the Greek. Or You read the wrong Greek. :rolleyes: </font>[/QUOTE]Nope and nope. Try again?
     
  9. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    No! The KJV is correct because I have 1526,1537 and 1557 New Testament. They have "Easter." :D
     
  10. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    No! The KJV is correct because I have 1526,1537 and 1557 New Testament. They have "Easter." :D </font>[/QUOTE]Four wrongs don't make a right. [​IMG]
     
  11. Alexandra Spears

    Alexandra Spears New Member

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    Verse 3 SPECIFIES that Peter was taken DURING the days of unleavened bread, not "during the Passover season." As I pointed out, the Passover was the day BEFORE the DUB started.
     
  12. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Double whammy here.

    Ignorant of Hebrew - Passover is a generic term and refers to an entire season (like we talk about christmas time). It means the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it.

    Ignorant of Greek - every Greek document, 100%, use the specific Greek word "Pascha" which means PASSOVER, not the pagan feast of Ishtar (Easter).

    So parading ignorance may be a virtue among the "onlies", but come on folks. This one is a dead duck. :eek:
     
  13. ColoradoFB

    ColoradoFB New Member

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    Two wrongs don't make a right, but three lefts, DO!
     
  14. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    The word should be either "Passover", or "Pesach", which is the Hebrew word for what we today call "Passover". "Pesach, btw, is found in Ex. 12:3-28; Lev. 23:5; Deut. 16:1-8 and translated "Passover".

    In Acts 12:4, the Greek word used is "pascha", which is Greek for "Pesach", or "Passover" in today's language.

    The KJV authors got the translation of the word wrong.
     
  15. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    easter is an obsolete english term for the jewish passover.
     
  16. AV Defender

    AV Defender New Member

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    Ignorant of 5th grade English - The AV corrects the Greek.
     
  17. aefting

    aefting New Member

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    With this statement, you are elevating the mistakes of men over the God-breathed Scriptures. :eek:
     
  18. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>

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    So all those years of Christians labored along with a mistake in their Bible?? 2 Tim 3:16 meant nothing??? God lied to Luke when he inspired him to write Pascha???

    This is yet more evidence that your doctrine does not come from the Bible but from false teachers. The AV does not correct the Greek. That is a denial of biblical inspiration. It asserts an open canon. It is false teaching.
     
  19. Terry_Herrington

    Terry_Herrington New Member

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    "The AV corrects the Greek." [​IMG] [​IMG] [​IMG] [​IMG] [​IMG]

    Applying the same logic, or lack thereof, the NIV corrects the KJV.
     
  20. BrianT

    BrianT New Member

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    Yes, but as *scripture* points out, "Passover" can refer to both the specific day (first day of the feast) or the entire feast week. Read Exodus 12, and you'll see that in the first month (Abib), the Passover feast takes place on the 14th. Next, there are seven days of eating unleavened bread, with a feast on the last day (7th day, or Abib 21 - Exo 13:6). This entire week is called the "Feast of Unleavened Bread" (Exo 34:17, Lev 23:6, etc.) Thus, the Passover feast proper is on the 14th, and the Feast of Unleavened Bread is from the 15th to the 21st. NOW READ CAREFULLY: Luke 22:1 says "Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover." Luke himself calls the *entire 8 day period* "Passover".

    Do you believe Luke 22:1 is an error in the KJV? If not, your reasoning for Acts 12:4 is wrong, and "Passover" is the correct translation.

    And with one sentence, JYD utterly destroys his own concept of "preservation", for there was no perfect text, including the originals, until the KJV came along and finally corrected the errors the Holy Spirit had made 1600 years prior.

    :rolleyes:
     
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