Acts 2:38

But that's the point Oliv, you claim your interpretation is the right one, yet in light of others who have interpretated the text you stand alone...over hundreds of years. Do you think your the first one to discover the truth? Are you the only one whom the Holy Spirit teaches? I am sure you don't believe that...

--> I can't believe you would write this. I stand alone? I just referred to:
1. Frederick Danker
2. Joseph Henry Thayer
3. TDNT
4. NIDNTT

I'm not sure how I can stand alone when these 4 Greek lexicons all agree with what I am asserting about Acts 2:38.
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This is the issue with false teaching and false teachers. And if we stand up to make ourselves a teacher or reformer of Christianity, we ought to proceed with great fear if we do so contrary to 2000 years of true Christian commentary. Those who spurn such commentary may indeed be showing themselves schismatics in the true sense. I don't say this to accuse you, but to warn you.

--> I have at least 4 Greek lexicons that agree with me.

--> In terms of Ephesians 4:5 I have already addressed this in the other section of this forum.

http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=58572

I'm finished with the discussion here. You keep saying I am all alone but I have cited more than just a couple of Greek lexicons that agree with my position. It doesn't make sense. If you want to challenge my assertions in my other thread that is fine.

Thank you

Olivencia
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I miss a few weeks of reading in the forums, and there it is...another new doctrine, LOLOL!

I honestly never heard of this one before...that Jews have to be saved in any way differently from gentiles! Think of the logistics of this...my husband's grandmother MIGHT have been Jewish..from Poland...we aren't sure about this...so, what does this mean for my husband? If he is one eighth Jewish, is he saved differently from me, who am completely gentile? My children? WOW! Gotta love public forums...you get to hear it all!
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--> Had you even bothered to read (that is with a sense of understanding) what I wrote you wouldn't have jumped to such erroneous (and ridiculous) assertions. It only applied to the Jews of that time period. In fact, this was written in the very first sentence of my very first post in this discussion. Incredible!
New doctrine? I cited numerous Greek lexicons. You and another just cite...yourselves. In other words an "opinion". That might be OK trying to decide what ice-cream flavor is the best but in terms of biblical theology it is frightening. :thumbs:

 

Smart?
Let's see. Two non-native English speakers get into a debate about a meaning of an English word. The first person pretty much just gives their opinion but the other person cites credible sources like Webster's, Oxford's etc. It doesn't take a Ph.D to figure out which side I am going to believe.
So you can go on with your opinions and I'll stick with the real meanings of the Greek words involved. :laugh:

 

Your making assumptions here Olive that aren't justified. But nevertheless the Scripture teaches me not wrangle about words to no profit.

--> Another misinterpreted text on your part.
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Sorry, but it just doesn't hold up with Scripture.

--> No, it doesn't hold up to your interpretation of Scripture.