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Being slain in the Spirit?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Bible-boy, Dec 22, 2005.

  1. Ray Berrian

    Ray Berrian New Member

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    Bible-boy,

    You said, '2) The passage no where uses the phrase "slain in the Spirit" to describe what happened to John. Additionally, John's testimony recorded in this passage makes it clear that he was in the manifest presence of the exalted Lord Jesus Christ. Nowhere does the text indicate that the Holy Spirit, the third person of the Triune Godhead, had also manifested His presence. The text only indicates that the exalted Lord Jesus was present. Therefore, why would it be acceptable to state that the presence of the Holy Spirit caused John to fall?'

    . [​IMG]
     
  2. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    John fell at his feet, indicating a postition of prostration, worship and adoration as any Jew would have done.
    The opposite is shown in the Book of Esther where Mordecai refused to bow to Haman because it was a mark of honor and exaltation. He would give honor and exaltation to God alone, not to an ungodly man like Haman. Please don't tell me that Mordecai was trying to refrain from bending or falling backwards.
    Please don't tell me that John fell backwards, arms flailing all over the place, body uncontrollable as in a demonn-possessed person--that which you see in most Charismatic circles, and on the stage of Benny Hinn.
    No! John reverently, and in reverential awe and fear fell before the feet of Jesus. That is something entirely the opposite of modern day "slain if the spirit" which is more likely to be of another spirit, not the Holy Spirit of God.
    DHK
     
  3. Ray Berrian

    Ray Berrian New Member

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    DHK,

    You said, 'Please don't tell me that John fell backwards, arms flailing all over the place, body uncontrollable as in a demonn-possessed person.'

     
  4. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    That is true. Some are in the Charismatic movement, but not all. Many are just induced into a self-hypnotic state. You see this a lot on the Benny Hinn farce.
    In truth I have been around many cases of people that have been demon possessed, and even now know some that are still demon-possessed. But that is not the subject of this thread. I have encountered such both in third world countries and also here in Canada. It is not as uncommon as some may think.
    You have it.
    DHK
     
  5. Ray Berrian

    Ray Berrian New Member

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    DHK,

    You said, '. . . and even now know some that are still demon-possessed.'

    . [​IMG]
     
  6. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    This thread is not about demon possession, suffice it to say that some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons.
    DHK
     
  7. music4Him

    music4Him New Member

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    This kind of remarks stir the pot..... But hey you want to tag every person who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit with demon possession. :rolleyes: So I have gotten used to it and my hide has gotten alot thicker. [​IMG]
     
  8. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    This kind of remarks stir the pot..... But hey you want to tag every person who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit with demon possession. :rolleyes: So I have gotten used to it and my hide has gotten alot thicker. [​IMG] </font>[/QUOTE]False accusations are not needed. Read what I said. Then make a more intelligent response.
     
  9. music4Him

    music4Him New Member

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    some people who speak in tongues and/or are slain in the spirit do so under the power of demons

    False accusations are not needed? Did you not say that? Talk about a need for an intelligent response. :rolleyes:

    I have seen people get "slain" in the Spirit. But I prefer another word besides "slain" .....possibly overcome to the point of fainting would be a start.
     
  10. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    No I did not.
    Here is a parallel.
    DHK said: "Some Americans believe that the Stealers will win the Super Bowl."

    Music4Him quoted DHK as saying: "DHK said 'ALL Americans believe that the Stealers will win the Superbowl.'"

    I hope that you can see the difference, and quit with the slander.
    DHK
     
  11. music4Him

    music4Him New Member

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    Slandering?????? I'm not the one trying to make a mountian out of a mole hill here. [​IMG]

    If people happen to get overcome by the Holy Spirit when being prayed for, who is anyone to judge and say its demon possession.

    Selah~
    Music4Him
     
  12. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Why?
    Because:
    #1. First of all none of it is of the Holy Spirit.
    #2. No doubt most of it is either psycological, or in the case of large crusades such as Benny Hinn, much of it has to do with crowd hypnosis.
    #3. In some cases both speaking in tongues and being slain in the spirit is a direct result of demonic activity.
    DHK
     
  13. music4Him

    music4Him New Member

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    Well thats your opinion..........

    But what if your wrong? :eek:
    I don't follow Benny Hinn so I don't know about hipnosis.

    #3. In "some" cases both speaking in tongues and being slain in the spirit is a direct result of demonic activity.

    Explain this statement you made DHK..... are you saying that in "some" cases its not demonic activity to speak in tongues or to be slain in the spirit?
     
  14. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Yes, of course. That is why I took issue with your previous statements. It is possible that some people who speak in tongues do so through demons. If you read my previous points I said otherwise it is simply a psychological phenomena, nothing to do with demons at all.

    Paul recognized the demon activiity involved. That is what he was speaking of in 1Cor.12:1-3:

    1 Corinthians 12:1-3 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.
    2 Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led.
    3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

    What was happening here? How could beleivers at Corinth call Jesus accursed? Were they believers? It was an epistle written to the saints at Corinth. Even the first verse of this chapter addreses them as my brethren.
    Some of the brethren were going back into their pagan ways (verse 2) and imitating the power of tongues that they had in their pagan idolatry. They wanted the showy "spiritual" (so-called) gift at any cost. They faked it, and consequently and unknowingly allowed Satan to work through them. They were speaking in another language, by another spirit, calling Jesus accursed. It wasn't gibberish. It was a real language. They were under the power and influence of Satan, calling Christ accursed. This was not the work of the Holy Spirit, Paul says, but another spirit. It was demonic activity, something they had previously encountered in their pagan past that Paul warned them of.
    DHK
     
  15. music4Him

    music4Him New Member

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    quote by DHK:
    ---------------------------------------------------
    Yes, of course. That is why I took issue with your previous statements. It is possible that some people who speak in tongues do so through demons. If you read my previous points I said otherwise it is simply a psychological phenomena, nothing to do with demons at all.
    ---------------------------------------------------

    In other words are you not still saying anyone who speaks in tongues or is "slain" in the Spirit is a psychological phenomena (not Spiritual as from the Holy Spirit) or possibley demon possesed?
     
  16. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Concerning both tongues and being slain of the Spirit:
    1. None of it is of the Holy Spirit.
    2. Most of it is a psychological phenomena (nothing to do with any spirit, only self or purely a carnal experience).
    3. Some of it may be of a demonic nature as explained in 1Cor.12:1-3
    I hope that makes it clear.
    DHK
     
  17. TaterTot

    TaterTot Guest

    I know DHK has taken the heat for his stance, but I think he is right. [​IMG]
     
  18. Bible-boy

    Bible-boy Active Member

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    Yes, but that still does not address the problem with your using this passage to support the charismatic belief in being “slain in the Spirit.”

    What is the problem? It is the fact that the text tells us that John was “in the Spirit” and the text makes it clear to us that John was in this state for a specific reason; namely, for the purpose of receiving Divine revelation for the recording of God’s Word.

    However, according to your own statements when charismatic believers are “slain in the Spirit” they are not receiving Divine revelation for the purpose of additional recording of God’s Word.

    Therefore, the biblical account of John’s experience in the Book of Revelation does not directly equate to the experience of modern day charismatic believers. So in the quoted passage (Rev. 1:9-18) we do not find a biblical account that corresponds to the modern charismatic experience of being “slain in the Spirit” in a direct one to one type of evidential relationship.
    Yes, we agree that the Spirit being discussed in Rev. 1:10 is the Holy Spirit. However, If we follow the use of this terminology, “in the Spirit,” throughout the Bible we see that it refers to a special state of being whereby the progressive revelation of God’s Word was recorded by the Prophets and the Apostles. We see it again when John explains how he was shown the throne room of heaven (Rev. 4:2). The text says:
    Again, John was placed in some type of state where he either literally saw things in heaven, or was given a Divine vision of things in heaven. Why was he placed in this state? He was specifically receiving the progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

    Next we see the terminology used in Rev. 17:3. The text says:
    Here again John is placed in some kind of special state, carried away, and shown something. Why? He was receiving the continued progressive revelation and subsequent recording of God’s Word.

    Next we see the terminology used in Rev. 21:10. The text says:
     
  19. tamborine lady

    tamborine lady Active Member

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    [​IMG]

    Bible Boy said:My salvation does not depend on my experience. I would be in real trouble if it did. My salvation is rooted in and depends solely on the fact that Jesus lived, suffered, died, was buried, and rose again according to the Divine plan of His Father so that lost sinners (such as I) who place their faith and trust in Him (Jesus) can be saved. How do I know this? Because it is recorded for me in the objective truth of God’s Word.


    Tam says:

    My salvation does not depend on tongues, or falling in the spirit, or interpretation, or wisdom, nor knowledge, or any other thing.

    The sole reason that I will go to heaven is that I have asked Jesus into my heart. I believe in Him shedding His blood for me, He died on the cross, was buried, rose again after three days, and now sits at the right hand of god.

    There is nothing that says you have to do any of that other stuff to be saved.

    Working for Jesus,

    Tam

    P.S. That doesn't mean that those things don't happen today though!! :D
     
  20. atestring

    atestring New Member

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    Why are there over 200 post on thus thread?
    Sounds like a lot of interest in this subject.
    It is interesting that this was a common experience in the Great Awakening that Jonathan Edwards was involved in, the CAne Ridge Revival, The Ministry of George Whitfield,
    The New Hebredes Revival, THe Ministry of John Wesley, and common among the Ulster Presbryterians in the 1630's. By the way the "Ulster Presbryterians" were the originators of the term "Redneck" but not for the reason of being slain in the Spirit.
    for info on this see my post on the Forum for Polls under Redneck Trivia.
     
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