BV/T or defamation of KJVO

Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

Archangel 7,

I appreciate the time and efforts you took for your last post. I still say you have not one iota of proof that they were reading from a different version. It seems quite logical, and common sense that Phillip read from the (Hebrew) scriptures and said it in the greek or aramaic language.... in light of the fact that the one language was Hebrew being translated into the greek or aramaic language. This also applies to the passage that Jesus read, and more can apply to this. Jesus Christ is the Son of God and most likely as he read the scripture, spoke of his own words - changed himself the words while reading this passage. Your logic is flawed, and makes not one iota of sense. The Old testament was written in Hebrew, and the New Testament in Greek. When reading from the Hebrew language they verbally translated this origional language in the greek, or aramaic to which they spoke.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

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Pastor Larry quoted:

This why, as the KJV translators said, there is good in having a variety of translations to gain the sense of the passage. It is very helpful to the average common person to have a variety of good translations.
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I refer you to this webpage regarding what the translators said regarding versions:

www.watch.pair.com/translators.html

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Pastor Larry quoted:

It is preserved and it is the word of God. How is it not the preserved word of God? What do you think it is?? It is a translation, just like the Syriac, the Aramaic, the Coptic, and so on right down to your KJV. It is the word of God as much as your KJV is. And it is most likely the version of Scripture used by Christ and the early apostles.
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It is a translation by a man named Origen in the second century, and is the translation of the Old Testament to the greek. This is not the origional language, and cannot therefore be relied upon as accurate for the Hebrew scriptures, over that of the Hebrew itself. Not to mention Origen was not exactly the type of person to trust with a translation of God's word.

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Pastor Larry quoted:

Actually, all anyone has shown is that the translation is different. You have not yet shown what God actually said about it.
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The translation is different than the english translation of the KJV, so now please tell me which one is right? And also tell me how you are not attacking God's preserved words, by saying such a thing. They cannot both be right. One is the truth, one is corrupt. Which one is it Larry, which one?

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I minister in a church every week where people have modern translations and the only confusion came from a guy a couple of weeks ago who was visiting from a KJVO church who questioned the word of God. The people here are not confused. This is not confusing. It is confusing to you because of your lack of understanding.
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Now please tell me, why did confusion arise, if the modern versions are not accurate? Or, if the KJV is not accurate? Please explain to me, where is the confusion coming from? It is not God. God is NOT THE AUTHOR OF CONFUSION.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!


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Pastor Larry quoted:

I have never done this so I don’t need to stop. It is you who are excusing errors and corruptions, not us.

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So Larry, are you admitting here that the KJV is corrupt and has errors?


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

So, you believe your own common sense and logic over what the KJV says? "THE PLACE OF THE SCRIPTURE WHICH HE READ was this" Those words recorded in you KJV are what was written in the the scripture in the passage that the eunuch read from. At least that's what the KJV says....

But that's an outright denial of what the KJV says: "And when he had OPENED THE BOOK, he found THE PLACE WHERE IT WAS WRITTEN, " According to the KJV, those words recorded in Luke were what was WRITTEN in the book Jesus read.

Strange how in your quest to prove one version onlyism you deny the very words of your one version only.

 

Peace and love to you in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

Russel55,

If one has the ability to speak two languages and also read two languages, would it then make sense that one could read from the one and speak with the other? This makes more sense, than ASSUMING there were other versions being used, as NOT anywhere indicated to us in the scriptures.

love in Jesus Christ our Faithful Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle,

"The Old testament was written in Hebrew, and the New Testament in Greek. When reading from the Hebrew language they verbally translated this origional language in the greek, or aramaic to which they spoke."

C'mon now!! This doesn't make logical sense!

The Torah was in Hebrew. Many of the people couldn't read Hebrew - since the Babylonian exile essentially made Aramaic the ay to day language. The readings from Isaiah were "haftorah" and quite likely were written in Greek. THe problem for your position obviously is that when the NT quotes the OT it often parallels the LXX much more than the BHS Hebrew - and believe me the 2 are significantly different in places.

But this is a problem for those asserting that the KJB and its progenitor manuscripts are the ONLY Word of God. In this case we can learn from this observation - rather than doing the human thing and refusing to acknowledge it! The above explanation regarding using 2 languages that way is really, really, really (multiple reallys) stretching it.

 

We clearly have two copies of the same passage in Isaiah which have *words* that are *different*. If that doesn't constitute proof of two different versions, what does?

But if "God only gave one Bible," then regardless of which languages they were originally written in or translated into along the way, by the time they get translated into the English KJV which "perfectly preserves" the words of that "one Bible" they should be *exactly word-for-word the same*. Yet they aren't. Why? Because there are two different versions of the same passage.

There's one serious problem with what you suggest "most likely" happened -- Scripture itself tells us exactly what *did* happen. And it tells us that Jesus read, in public, aloud, verbatim, the exact words of Isaiah in the scroll he was given to read.

 

This cannot happen
I assume that both are correct
for both are the inerrant written Word
of God. The contradiction is not real
but only a temporary misunderstanding
within myself or between myself and
my brother/sister.

How do you resolve it when your
KJV seems to contradict itself?
That is a retorical question.
You assume the Bible is the inerrant
written word of God and try to
figure out what your problem is,
cause God hasn't got a problem.

 

My original post would probably gotten me banned, so I changed it.

Precepts, I do not appreciate the attack, but I will not respond in kind. I forgive you.

In Christ,
Trotter

 

But it say those words are the ones that were written. Read the text. I'm not assuming anything-I'm taking the text at face value, believing exactly what it says: "...the place where it was WRITTEN". Those are the words as they were written--not as they were read by Jesus, not as Jesus translated them--BUT AS THEY WERE WRITTEN.

You, on the other hand, seem to be trying to wriggle out from under what the text says because it doesn't suit your presuppositions. Why are you doubting what the KJV says?

 

Michelle: "Not to mention Origen was not exactly the type of person to trust with a translation of God's word."

What we so called "MV lovers" have been
saying all the time is that GOD is the
one who assures the accuracy and correctness
of His written word NOT THE TRANSLATOR.
It is a process called THE DIVINE PRESERVATION
of the written Word of God.

BTW Origen was the kind of Christian
who took this saying of Jesus literally
and proved it with his action:

Matthew 18:8-9 (KJV1769):

8 Wherefore if thy hand or thy foot offend thee, cut them off, and cast them from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life halt or maimed, rather than having two hands or two feet to be cast into everlasting fire. 9 And if thine eye offend thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire.

Repent of your ugly words against
Brother Origen NOW
now and save some embarrassment
on the day the Pretribulation Raputure/resurrection
comes by.

 

Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

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Archangel7 quoted:

But if "God only gave one Bible," then regardless of which languages they were originally written in or translated into along the way, by the time they get translated into the English KJV which "perfectly preserves" the words of that "one Bible" they should be *exactly word-for-word the same*. Yet they aren't. Why? Because there are two different versions of the same passage.
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Now you are going on the assumption that they would read the same. All I have heard from many on these threads, is how there are variations, from one language translated into another. This is what is evidenced in the Bible, and translation of two different languages into the English language. Why then would they read the exact same (the Old Testament (Hebrew) to the New Testament (greek))? It is quite different when we refer to the modern versions, for they are based on completely different texts which underline them, than that of the KJV, and this is where the problems, contradictions and confusions come from. Face the reality, they have corrupted God's pure word of truth, and you are excusing them away, and claiming the corruptions are the very preserved words of God, while claiming the KJV has corruptions. I guess God, for 400 years allowed his people to believe corruptions, huh? I guess God did not keep his promise to all those christians prior to the modern versions?

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Precepts,

I truly do not understand you. You attack me, claiming that I am defaming the KJV. I have not. I have spoken against the man-made doctrine of KJVOnly. I am sorry that you equate this with an actual attack on the translation.

I am still waiting on a valid arguement that shows that the KJV should be the only bible I ever need to open, since you and others have let us know that we need not look to the original languages since the KJV is the measurement of perfection.

Attacking me serves no other purpose that to make yourself look like a school-yard bully. I have issued the challenge for a reasonable arguement, something that is of substance. "It-was-good-enough-for-Paul" and "I-know-because-I-know-because-I-know" ain't going to cut it. You can beat around the bush, you can be hateful and argue, you can duck and dodge, but I am still waiting on a reasonable debate.

Don't worry about my nerves. Worry about my flesh. What you wrote equated to you calling my salvation into question. I do not know if that was your intent, but it was taken as such. Tread carefully.

If you have a reasonable arguement, post it. I would be very interested in reading it, not attacking it.

In Christ,
Trotter

 

Michelle, Then the KJVO's:kjbo's wonder why we laugh at fallacy of their view. King James Ward has posted his O-pinion of his man made myth which cannot be from God: b/c NOT ONE VERSE IN THE KJV:kjb MENTIONS THAT GOD CHOSE IT TO BE THE ONLY VERSION FOR THE ENGLISH SPEAKING WORLD. Would someone please call "Myth Exterminators"? or Pickle Patrol?

 

Moses: all reliable BV's, including the KJV.
Aaron: dancing around the golden pickle

 

QS-"Oh look how spiritual I am! I have oneup on you, Trotter, b/c I know God has pickled His Word in the KJV;kjb"