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Can a KJVO explain this anglican influence in the KJV?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Daniel David, Jan 14, 2004.

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  1. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    So, do I understand you to say that these two examples are enough to qualify the KJV as an "Anglican Bible?"

    And, do the fact that the MV's translate these two verses the way you prefer make them free of Anglican influence?

    As I recall, Dr.s Westcott & Hort were very much influenced by the Anglican church.
     
    #21 Pastor_Bob, Jan 17, 2004
  2. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    These are just two verses that demonstrate the anglican influence upon the text. You have said yourself that it is the scholarship that matters.

    I would agree that the majority of the version does not project their anglicanism.

    This is also a double standard on th epart of some KJVOs. Timothy1769 on this board constantly criticized the NASB (even though he apparently didn't understand the theological significance) for doing the exact same thing.
     
    #22 Daniel David, Jan 17, 2004
  3. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    This should be bumped as KJVOs clearly missed it the first time.
     
    #23 Daniel David, Feb 6, 2004
  4. LRL71

    LRL71 New Member

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    Uh, from what I recall, Dr. Westcott & Dr. Hort did not translate an English version, but merely put together a Greek NT text. Compiling Greek texts is not affected by 'Anglican' influences.

    ;)
     
    #24 LRL71, Feb 7, 2004
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