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Christ made sin Part 2

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by percho, Feb 11, 2019.

  1. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    The other thread is about done, therefore this one which should have been titled:

    Christ made sin and the righteousness of God.

    YLT Romans 3:21,22 And now apart from law hath the righteousness of God been manifested, testified to by the law and the prophets, and the righteousness of God is through the faith of Jesus Christ to all, and upon all those believing, -- for there is no difference,

    YLT 2 Cor 5:21 for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him.

    What is the righteousness of God? What manifested the righteousness of God?

    Did Christ need to be made sin itself for this to take place or would just being a sin offering have been sufficient?
     
  2. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    The Bible does say He was made sin for us. I don't know how or why it was needful but I'm greatful that this act made Salvation available. Obviously God has rules that He lives by as well even though He made the rules. We may not know now but someday we will
    MB
     
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  3. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    who in the days of his flesh both prayers and supplications unto Him who was able to save him from death -- with strong crying and tears -- having offered up, and having been heard in respect to that which he feared, through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience, Heb 5:7,8 YLT having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross,
    wherefore, also From Phil 2:8,9 YLT

    Did Christ need to become sin in order to be saved from death?

    Is the manifested, righteousness of God, the resurrection of the Son of God.

    The soul that sins it shall die. All have sinned and come short of the glory of God. One was made, sin, that we may become the righteousness of God, in him>
     
  4. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    The righteousness of God is that which He supplies through faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 3:21-22) who is the manifestation of that righteousness. The perfect righteousness of the Lord Jesus is imputed to those who believe on Him (Romans 5:19; 2 Peter 1:1).
    Christ needed to be made sin for us. A sin offering was not sufficient. 'Sacrifice and offering you did not desire: My ears You have opened [c.f. Exodus 21:5-6]. Burnt offering and sin offering You did not require. then I said, "Behold, I come, in the scroll it is written of Me. I delight to do Your will, O My God, and Your law is within My heart"' (Psalm 40:6-8).

    The various offerings and sacrifices allowed God to pass over the sins of the Israelites who offered them in faith and repentance, but something better was needed to put away sin once and for all (Hebrews 10:1-14; Romans 3:25-26).[/QUOTE]
     
  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    JonC said:
    How do you define the "righteousness of God"? What I mean is are we speaking of a moral correctness (perhaps God's moral standard) or something else?

    Van said:
    God is holy and blameless and perfect, His every action is perfectly just and ... well righteous!

    Thus the rightness or perfection of God refers to the absence of any flaws. Those not "in Him" are lacking these qualities, i.e. they are not holy, they are unholy; they are not blameless, they are condemned; they are not perfect, they are deeply flawed.

    Therefore the righteousness of God is not a moral standard, but a state of being. Thus once God puts us spiritually in Christ, we become (are made) the righteousness of God, by the circumcision of Christ.

    I do not think I can state it any more clearly.
     
  6. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    [/QUOTE]

    I agree yet have just a little different take on your first paragraph. Question/s

    And before the coming of the faith, under law we were being kept, shut up to the faith about to be revealed, so that the law became our child-conductor -- to Christ, that by faith we may be declared righteous, and the faith having come, no more under a child-conductor (the law) are we, for ye are all sons of God, through the faith, in Christ Jesus Gal 3:22-26 YLT I inserted (the law) and put comer before and after "through the faith," to show just what was, in Christ Jesus.

    Jesus born of Mary became through death and resurrection the substance of things hopped for the evidence of things not seen, FAITH? A noun. The righteousness of God. IMHO

    What is this, the faith, that was coming and came, that was revealed, apart from the law?
    What was, the substance of things hoped for the evidence of things not seen? Hope of eternal life incorruptible?
    That removed from being under the law to be being under grace?

    Was it not? The death and resurrection of Jesus?

    but has been made manifest now by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who has annulled death, and brought to light life and incorruptibility by the glad tidings; 2 Tim 1:10 Darby
    Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. Rom 6:9
    And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David. Acts 13:34
    “he, (David) foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption. Acts 2:31 NKJV

    Is that not the faith by which we have received the Spirit.

    Acts 2:32,33 NKJV “This Jesus God has raised up, of which we are all witnesses. “Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear.
    that to the nations the blessing of Abraham may come in Christ Jesus, that the promise of the Spirit we may receive through the faith. Gal 3:14 YLT Through the death and resurrection of Jesus
    Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. John 16:7
     
  7. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Before the foundation of the world God made a promise; The hope of eternal life.
    Before the foundation of the world, Christ the Son of God born of a virgin woman, was going to shed his sinless blood, die, for the sin/s of others.
    Why? So those who had been created in his likeness of God, given a law, transgressed that law, in the first created man, would die and thus be redeemed from death, adopted as sons.

    By doing this; The Darkness that was upon the face of the deep, the devil, the sinner from the beginning, who had the power of death, could be destroyed along with his works.

    Would God be righteous if the only One born of woman, who never committed a sin, yet was made sin and then obediently for that sin, which he did not commit, to remain dead forever? Would those he had died for have any hope? See 1 Cor 15:17,18 And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished.

    Who has to receive the promise of God, made before time began, in order for anyone to receive it. Was the promise of, hope, predicated upon anything or was it just going to take place because, Son, came? Was something required of Son, born of woman, God sending his own Son (Sent) in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

    who in the days of his flesh both prayers and supplications unto Him who was able to save him from death -- with strong crying and tears -- having offered up, and having been heard in respect to that which he feared, through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience, Hebrews 5:7,8 YLT
    and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross, Phil 2:8 YLT

    wherefore, also, God did highly exalt him, and gave to him a name that is above every name, Phil 2:9
    and having been made perfect, he did become to all those obeying him a cause of salvation age-during, Heb 5:9

    God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
    Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
     
  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    [/QUOTE]
    Jesus took upon Himself in full the Bowl/Cup of wrath God has stored up against the wicked in their time of Judgment, and that was what He was concerned about while in the garden, as he knew that by taking upon Himself that Bowl, He would face being forsaken by God!
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Jesus took upon Himself in full the Bowl/Cup of wrath God has stored up against the wicked in their time of Judgment, and that was what He was concerned about while in the garden, as he knew that by taking upon Himself that Bowl, He would face being forsaken by God![/QUOTE]
    Yet another part of the story is Christ willingly took the cup after praying. He did the will of the Father!
     
  10. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Yet another part of the story is Christ willingly took the cup after praying. He did the will of the Father![/QUOTE]
    Yes, as the Son always said and did exactly as the father desired Him to be doing!
     
  11. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Speaking of God and the Christ and or God the Father and the Son of God, Paul wrote

    :for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him. 2 Cor 5:21

    If that is written as myself and several others believe, Christ made sin and the Son obediently gave his life just having been made sin; Did Christ go to Sheol, made sin? What happened to that sin? Was the Son, made sin, unclean? Was the Son cleansed of that sin? When? ? Sin, He makes, ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν vi Aor Act 3 Sg ? Where is that, singular, sin, today?

    For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
    For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised: And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
     
  12. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Christ was indeed made sin, by having all the sins of the elect imputed to Him (Isaiah 53:6), and He provided full satisfaction to the Father for His outraged justice. God 'set Him forth as a propitiation' for sin, and we know that the father was indeed propitiated by the suffering and death of our Lord because He raised Him to life again never to die more. Where are those sins now? They are cast into the depths of the sea (Micah 7:19), as far as the east is from the west (Psalms 103:12).
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Yes, for if the wrath of God was not satisfied by the death of Jesus on our behalf, we would all still be lost in sins and needing to pay our own sin debt to God.
     
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