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Could the 1611 KJV have been better?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, Nov 2, 2006.

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  1. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    I was just reading in Matthew this past week and came across one of those.
    The phrase, "raise the dead" is found in the "minority" texts [read Alexandrian] and in the Vulgate.

    Sure, it is present in some of the texts of the TR, but in at least one of them the particular Greek text was formulated later, following the text of KJV.

    Rob
     
    #61 Deacon, Nov 6, 2006
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  2. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Is 'better' a judgment by today's standards or 1611? I agree that some of these might be better; but many are not superior, just different. Let's take a closer look at some of the words cited (I did not nit-pick the entire list)...
    ________
    Matt. 3:12 barn (Great) garner (Bishops’, KJV)

    The Greek word here is apotheke (Strong's #596) which means a place in which anything is laid up, or a storehouse, a granary. I was not familiar with this word previously so I looked it up... it seems the definition of "garner" (online Am. Heritage Dict.) is to gather and store in, as if in a granary; also to amass, or acquire. My grandfather was a farmer and I know that a "barn" can be used to store feed, but it also can be shelter for livestock and/or farming implements. Typically, herds and tools do not reside in a corncrib or silo. These are different structures with different purposes. Perhaps these terms had completely different or almost similar meanings in 1611, but on the face of it, I'd say that "garner" may actually be the more accurate word.
    ________
    Matt. 6:6 chamber (Geneva) closet (Bishops’, KJV)

    The Greek word at this point is tameion (Strong's #5009) which Thayer's Lexicon says is a storage chamber (especially an inner chamber), storeroom, a secret room. The second definition in the American Heritage Dictionary of "closet" is specifically a small private chamber, as for study or prayer. Again, I don't think most of us really know the 1611 difference between the definitions of "chamber" and "closet", but "closet" seems like a very legitimate translation to me.
    ________
    Matt. 14:11 maid (Geneva) damsel (Bishops’, KJV)
    Mark 6:28 maiden (Tyndale’s) damsel (Bishops’, KJV)

    Both above references compare the same word: the Greek word is korasion (#2877) meaning a girl, damsel, or maiden. Clearly, "damsel" is not inferior to "maid/maiden"!
    ________
    Matt. 23:27 tombs (Tyndale’s, Geneva) sepulchres (Bishops’, KJV)

    The handy online version of Houghton Mifflin Thesaurus lists "sepulchre" and "tomb" as a synonyms.
    ________
    Matt. 20:11 master of the house (Geneva) good man of the house (Bishops, KJV)
    Mark 5:21 near (Geneva) nigh (Bishops’, KJV)
    Mark 11:11 evening (Geneva) eventide (Bishops’, KJV)

    Most of us understand both pairs of words to be equivalent, and so (I think) would have 17th century readers. Any differences would be inconsequential.
    ________
    Matt. 20:22 know (Geneva) wot (Bishops’, KJV)
    Mark 9:6 knew (Geneva) wist (Bishops’, KJV)
    Mark 14:40 knew (Geneva) wist (Bishops’, KJV)

    I think that when the primary goal of the AV revisionists (eloquence of style) is taken into consideration, you may understand why they choose as they did. Note the consistency.
    ________
    Mark 7:27 good (Geneva) meet (Bishops’, KJV)
    Matt. 15:26 good (Tyndale’s, Geneva) meet (Bishops’, KJV)

    Now this is a case where the AVists actually translated this Greek word kalos as "good" in the majority of its appearances (over 80 times), but only twice as "meet". The word has a very broad meaning of beautiful, handsome, excellent, eminent, choice, surpassing, precious, useful, suitable, commendable, admirable, etc. We don't know why they chose "meet" right here; most likely stylistic considerations. The AV translators were fond of synonyms for the reader's variety (they also used "better" 7 times, "honest" 5 times, and some others).
    ________
    Matt. 26:27 Drink ye every one of it (Geneva) Drink ye all of it (Bishops’, KJV)

    This phrase can be understood in English two ways: 'you (plural) should drink the entire contents,' or 'each individual should drink from it'. For many years I thought it meant the former. However, the Greek clearly indicates that it means the later, and I get that sense a little more form the Geneva. For modern readers sentence structure and punctuation could also help immensely: 'Everyone, drink from it,' or 'Drink it, all of you.'

    I do believe that the AV could have been more accurate in bringing over the Greek into English. However, I don't think that any of these references really prove that point.
     
  3. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Were is your evidence that the Latin Vulgate influenced Tyndale's or the Geneva Bible any more than it influenced the KJV? There may be more examples of influence from the Latin Vulgate in the Great Bible than in the KJV, but there are likely fewer examples of influence from the Latin Vulgate in the Geneva Bible than in the KJV. The Great, Geneva, and Bishops' Bibles do have the rendering "Lucifer" from the Latin Vulgate, but so does the KJV. Tyndale's did seem to take his rendering "mansions" at John 14:2 from the Latin Vulgate rendering mansiones, but that rendering is also found in the KJV. On the other hand, the Geneva Bible does not have this rendering from the Latin Vulgate. The KJV has "pygarg" at Deut. 14:5 from the Latin Vulgate rendering pygargus. Another KJV rendering "unicorn" seems to be based on the Latin Vulgate unicornis. The 1611 KJV was influenced indirectly by the Latin Vulgate thru means of the 1582 Rheims N. T. while the 1560 Geneva Bible was not influenced by that 1582 translation based on the Latin Vulgate. The Geneva Bible was not translated from the Latin Vulgate. The Geneva Bible was translated from the same Hebrew and Greek texts that underlie the KJV.
     
  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Thank you for discussing some of the examples. My point was not that all of them were better. Instead the point was that if one of the example renderings is better it shows that the 1611 edition could have been better at that verse. I had already noted in an earlier post that some of the examples involve archaic language. Thus, some of the words would mean the same thing if present-day readers know the archaic meaning of the word in question. Sometimes the KJV translators did update these same renderings at other verses so they were not perfectly consistent in their use of words such as "wot" and "wist." Tyndale's and Coverdale's had "wot" and "wist" at many verses where the KJV updates them to "know" or "knew." The KJV kept a few such uses from the Bishops' Bible even though the earlier 1560 Geneva Bible had already updated them. The first rule given the KJV translators may be responsible for some of the words used with a now archaic or obscure meaning, some of the less clear or more difficult words, a couple possibly anachronistic words, or some of the archaic words that are found in the KJV.

    A few times, the KJV translators may have introduced variations in their renderings when they chose or kept one rendering from one Bible but a different rendering from another Bible. For example, at 1 Chronicles 6:28, the KJV replaced the Geneva Bible's rendering "Shemuel" with the Bishops‘ Bible rendering "Samuel" while it kept "Shemuel" from the Geneva a few verses later (6:33). The Bishops‘ Bible had “Samuel“ at both verses where the Geneva had “Shemuel.” The KJV may have taken the rendering “land of Armenia” (2 Kings 19:37, Isa. 37:38) from the Bishops’ Bible while taking “mountains of Ararat” (Gen. 8:4) from the Geneva. All four times the Geneva Bible rendered the Hebrew word “Ararat” (Gen. 8:4, 2 Kings 19:37, Isa. 37:38, Jer. 51:27) while the Bishops’ Bible rendered it “Armenia” three of the times and “Ararat” once (Jer. 51:27). At Genesis 10:6, the KJV seems to have taken the Bishops’ spelling “Phut” while at 1 Chronicles 1:8 it seems to have taken the Geneva Bible’s spelling “Put.“ At Ezekiel 27:10, the KJV may have followed the Geneva [“Phut”] while following the Bishops’ [“Libya”] at Ezekiel 30:5 where the Geneva has “Phut.“ At Numbers 10:29, the KJV may have followed the Bishops’ rendering “Raguel” while at Exodus 2:18 it may have kept the Geneva Bible rendering “Reuel.“ The Bishops’ Bible had “Raguel” at both verses (Exod. 2:18, Num. 10:29) where the Geneva had “Reuel.“ Did the KJV take “diminish” at Exodus 5:8 from the Geneva and take “minish” at Exodus 5:19 from the Bishops’? The Geneva Bible has “trumpet” twice at 1 Corinthians 15:52 while the Bishops’ Bible has “trump” twice. The KJV seems to have “last trump” from the Bishops’ and “trumpet” from the Geneva.
     
  5. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    These comments were followed by an impressive list of verses from Genesis. I think it is impossible to fairly compare these words without having access to a 17th century dictionary. Also, what is missed while reviewing in this format (mostly single words contrasted against single words) is that each translation applied the word that fit best for its particular literary style which is a legitimate criteria for chosing between available words.

    I think that upon inspection the actual differences between many, if not most of the words of earlier English versions and the AV will be discovered to be nearly synonymous even now, but especially if put into a 1611 context. A couple of examples...
    __________
    Gen. 24:55 maid (Geneva) damsel (Bishops’, KJV)
    Gen. 29:14 a month long (Coverdale’s) space of a month (Bishops’, KJV)
    Gen. 37:14 valley (Coverdale’s) vale (Bishops’, KJV)

    None of these are really simpler, clearer, more up-to-date, or more accurate.
    __________
    Gen. 46:27 seventy (Geneva) threescore and ten (Bishops’, KJV)
    Gen. 50:3 seventy (Geneva) threescore and ten (Bishops’, KJV)

    Two obvious examples of the AV literary style.
    __________
    Gen. 31:29 yesterday (Coverdale’s) yesternight (Bishops’, KJV)

    This seems to be a simple case of translator's discretion: the word in Hebrew can mean either "yesterday" or "yesternight" (last night). Coverdale chose one option and the AV chose the alternate, and neither is wrong. It would take a lengthly study to detrmine if either was 'better' suited in the context of the passage.

    Of the verses listed for Genesis in that post, I found none that were overwhelmingly 'better' in the pre-1611 English Bibles than the AV, 'better' being subjective.
     
    #65 franklinmonroe, Nov 6, 2006
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  6. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    Are you saying that you think that the KJV is not a gift from God or that all versions are?

    A.F.
     
  7. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Here are some more examples:

    Ps. 4:2 lies (Geneva) leasing (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 5:6 lies (Geneva) leasing (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 18:34 brass (Geneva) steel (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 45:1 will utter forth (Geneva) is inditing (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 60:6 measure (Geneva) mete (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 81:3 Blow the trumpet (Geneva) Blow up the trumpet (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 82:5 moved (Geneva) out of course (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 107:39 diminished (Geneva) minished (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 108:7 measure (Geneva) mete (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 111:7 truth (Geneva) verity (Bishops’, KJV)
    S. of S. 2:12 turtledove (Coverdale’s) turtle (Bishops’, KJV)
    S. of S. 8:10 peace (Geneva) favour (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 5:8 near (Geneva) nigh (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 6:14 evil (Geneva) mischief (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 7:19 husband (Coverdale’s) good man (Bishops’) goodman (KJV)
    Prov. 8:23 before the earth (Geneva) ever the earth (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 14:23 scarceness (Coverdale’s) want (Geneva) penury (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 19:17 mercy (Geneva) pity (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 25:24 contentious woman (Geneva) brawling woman (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 28:8 be merciful unto the poor (Geneva) pity the poor (Bishops’, KJV)
    Prov. 31:19 spindle (Geneva) distaff (Bishops’, KJV)
     
  8. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Some of these can be humorous...
    _________
    Ps. 4:2 lies (Geneva) leasing (Bishops’, KJV)
    Ps. 5:6 lies (Geneva) leasing (Bishops’, KJV)

    I wonder if Hertz knows that "leasing" is another term for "lies"?
    _________
    Ps. 18:34 brass (Geneva) steel (Bishops’, KJV)

    Thayer's says that "brass" (or "copper") is right; of course, Strong's adds "steel" too!
    _________
    Ps. 81:3 Blow the trumpet (Geneva) Blow up the trumpet (Bishops’, KJV)

    I hope that musician wasn't injured when his instrument exploded!
    _________
    S. of S. 2:12 turtledove (Coverdale’s) turtle (Bishops’, KJV)

    Here's the whole verse (KJV): The flowers appear on the earth; the time of the singing [of birds] is come, and the voice of the turtle is heard in our land;

    There seems no excuse for this one: the Hebrew word means "dove" or "turtledove" in both Thayer's and Strong's. No mention of "turtle" anywhere. This not a printer's error either; the AV translates this word 5 times as "turtle" (see Levi. 12:8, 15:29, Num. 6:10, Jer. 8:7 clearly related to various birds for sacrifices) even though they translated it otherwise "turtledove" (9 times).

    Logos1560 what is your source for these examples, please?
     
    #68 franklinmonroe, Nov 6, 2006
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  9. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    The original autographs were gifts from God - they were brought about by the guidance of the Holy Spirit. Every manuscript copy, every translation, every Bible version since those times have been copied/translated by mere men. These, including the KJV, are mere copies/translations of God's perfect gift - nothing more, nothing less.
     
  10. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Franklinmonroe: //Is 'better' a judgment by today's standards or 1611? //

    By 2006 standards.
    If we are to use the KJV1769 instead of, say
    the HCSB = Christian Standard Bible /Holman, 2003/,
    then we must judge by today's standards, not those
    in 1611 or 1769 or whatever.
     
  11. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    These examples are based on my own research and comparison of the KJV with the earlier pre-1611 English Bibles. I have compiled several pages of examples of where 1611 renderings that later editors changed came from the Bishops' Bible and were not the fault of the 1611 printers. I have also compiled at least five pages of examples where the KJV kept a Bishops' Bible rendering where a rendering from another earlier English Bible could possibly be considered better, especially in terms of today's English.
     
  12. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    In every one of the places where the KJV introduced a change or variation from the earlier English Bibles, especially the Geneva and Bishops’ Bibles, was their change always an improvement? Did the KJV translators always achieve their aim or endeavor of making a good translation better? Can KJV-only advocates explain what “truth of the original” demanded that the text of the Bishops’ Bible be altered in such cases? Do all their changes agree better with the original language texts? These are valid questions for those who claim that the KJV is a perfect translation. Just one example of a clearer, better, or more accurate rendering when compared to the preserved texts in the original language texts would again indicate that the 1611 edition of the KJV could have been better. A few possible examples will be listed to see if KJV-only advocates will show how the change introduced in the KJV was necessary and was clearly an improvement. Do holders of a KJV-only view advocate change or variation simply for the sake of change?


    Exod. 9:31 flax and the barley were (Geneva, Bishops’) flax and the barley was (KJV)
    Deut. 14:15 ostrich (Geneva, Bishops’) owl (KJV)
    Jud. 2:16 hands of their oppressors (Geneva, Bishops’) hand of them that spoiled them (KJV)
    Jud. 3:18 presented the present (Geneva, Bishops’) made an end to offer the present (KJV)
    Jud. 18:21 substance (Geneva, Bishops’) carriage (KJV)
    Jud. 19:19 we lack nothing (Geneva, Bishops’) there is no want of any thing (KJV)
    Jud. 20:10 villainy (Geneva) abomination (Bishops’) folly (KJV)
    1 Sam. 17:6 shield of brass (Geneva, Bishops’) target of brass (KJV)
    1 Sam. 17:56 young man (Geneva) youngling (Bishops’) stripling (KJV)
    1 Sam. 20:40 weapons (Coverdale’s, Matthew’s, Great) artillery (KJV)
    1 Sam. 27:10 a roving (Geneva, Bishops’) a road (KJV)
    2 Sam. 12:12 in the open sunlight (Tyndale’s, Bishops’) before the sun (KJV)
    1 Kings 22:16 charge (Geneva, Bishops’) adjure (KJV)
    2 Kings 12:11 payed it out (Geneva) brought it out (Bishops’) laid it out (KJV)
    1 Chron. 5:18 shield (Geneva, Bishops’) buckler (KJV)
    Est. 7:4 recompense (Geneva, Bishops’) countervail (KJV)
    Job 30:29 ostriches (Coverdale’s to Bishops’) owls (KJV)
    Ps. 74:8 dwelling place (Coverdale’s, Bishops’) synagogues (Geneva, KJV)
    Prov. 9:15 them that pass by (Geneva) such as go by (Bishops) passengers (KJV)
    Prov. 13:4 shall have plenty (Geneva, Bishops’) shall be made fat (KJV)
    Prov. 29:24 declareth it not (Geneva) bewrayeth it not (KJV)
    Prov. 30:2 foolish (Geneva, Bishops’) brutish (KJV)
    Isa. 16:4 destroyer (Geneva, Bishops’) spoiler (KJV)
    Isa. 34:11 pelican(s) (Coverdale’s, Geneva, Bishops‘) cormorant (KJV)
    Isa. 40:12 counted (Geneva) measured (Bishops’) meted out (KJV)
    Jer. 4:22 foolish (Geneva) sottish (KJV)
    Jer. 5:6 destroy (Geneva, Bishops’) spoil (KJV)
    Amos 6:12 wormwood (Coverdale’s to Bishops’) hemlock (KJV)
    Nah. 2:7 smiting (Geneva) knocking (Bishops’) tabering (KJV)
    Zeph. 2:14 pelican(s) (Coverdale’s to Bishops’) cormorant (KJV)
    Acts 17:4 joined unto (Coverdale’s) joined in company (Geneva) consorted with (KJV)
    Acts 21:15 were ready (Coverdale’s) took up our burdens (Bishops’) took up our carriages (KJV)
    2 Cor. 3:18 mirror (Great, Geneva, Bishops’) glass (KJV)
    Tit. 2:10 faithfulness (Tyndale’s to Bishops’) fidelity (KJV)
    Heb. 10:23 hope (Tyndale’s to Coverdale’s) faith (KJV)
    1 Pet. 2:17 brotherly fellowship (Tyndale’s, Geneva, Bishops’) brotherhood (KJV)
     
  13. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    I would agree if the question had been 'Can the 1611 KJV be better?' then the AV would not fare well against today's standards. My question was meant rhetorically (I thought I detected some modern standards being applied). Sorry Ed, that is a different debate.

    This topic is titled "Could the 1611 KJV have been better?" (past tense) and the OP questions whether more accurate renderings were available in the pre-1611 English Bibles, and how the rules set forth by the King affected the translation process at the time.
     
    #73 franklinmonroe, Nov 6, 2006
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  14. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Awesome research, Logos1560!

    In every one of the places where the KJV introduced a change or variation from the earlier English Bibles, especially the Geneva and Bishops’ Bibles, was their change always an improvement? No, but 'improvement' can be very subjective.

    Did the KJV translators always achieve their aim or endeavor of making a good translation better? No, it seems to be that, like the RV men that came after them, the AV revisors abandoned the king's directives (and set about to do what they were directed by the King of Kings to do.)

    Do all their changes agree better with the original language texts? No, but that was not their primary focus.
     
  15. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! Ouch! (that is the sound of me biting my tongue....)
     
  16. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    It baffles me that folks can read the scriptures and believe that God is active in their own personal lives yet not believe that God has any thing to do with the translation of the Scriptures.

    I would guess that those here who are actively involved in translation pray daily for guidance in their work. Are such prayers in vain? Be real man.

    A.F.
     
  17. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Now you're putting words in my mouth which I did not say, AF. I did not say that God had nothing to do with the translation of Scripture. And no, the prayers of the translators are not in vain.

    But do you believe, AF, that only the KJV translators prayed and received God guidance? Didn't the translators of the MVs also pray to God and receive His guidance to help their efforts as well? I think that at least some of the translators of all the various English Bible versions have prayed for God's guidance and have received the guidance they prayed for. But, despite God's hand being on the translation efforts, those efforts were marred by the frailties and the shortcomings of the translators. Just like we have free will to follow God's will or not to follow God's will, the translators of the various Bible versions also had free will. I venture to say that there were Christians and non-Christians alike on all translation committees. And although God's Spirit was probably heard by those who were Christian, I don't think the non-Christians were listening to the Holy Spirit. Yet their combined efforts produced various English Bibles from early times until the present. The Holy Spirit can take the things of mortal men and turn them into something good and useful. Do you believe that God smiled down upon the KJV while ignoring other English Bible translations?

    Yes, the 1611 KJV could have been better. But by the same token, the MVs could also have been better. There is not one of them, including the KJV, which have absolutely no mistakes.
     
  18. AntennaFarmer

    AntennaFarmer Member

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    Keith M, you said "These, including the KJV, are mere copies/translations of God's perfect gift - nothing more, nothing less."

    I agree that having God's Word in the original is a Gift. However, if God did guide the work of the translator then I think I am correct to say that the translation is also a gift from God.

    I think you are putting words in my mouth. I don't recall saying any thing in this thread against other translations. I did say that I think the KJV 1611 is a gift from God. As such (in my opinion) it is perfect. I continue to stand by that.

    A.F.
     
  19. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Is there any consistent scriptural basis for thinking that the Holy Spirit's guiding of English translators in 1611 was any different than the Holy Spirit's guiding of English translators in 1560, than the Holy Spirit's guiding of German translators in 1534, than the Holy Spirit's guiding of Dutch translators in the 1600's, than the Holy Spirit's guiding of English translators in 1842, than the Holy Spirit's guiding of English translators today?

    The type reasoning that is used to try to make the Church of England translators perfect in their understanding/interpreting/translating of Scripture in 1611 seems to be the same type reasoning that is used to defend a pope.

    A view of Bible translation that makes one exception instead of applying the same standard to all translations based on the same underlying preserved Scriptures in the original languages is a view of translation that is not worth having. If every translation based on the same texts is imperfect and errant with one exception, by what different process was this one exception made? Making one translation into an exception offers no valid support for KJV-only generalizations or arguments concerning all the translations on their line, stream, or tree of good Bibles. Is not the argument for one exception in exclusive "only" claims for the KJV in effect the same as an unscriptural claim for additional or advanced revelation?
     
  20. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Because, I don't view the MV's of less value or throw them out either. As the KJV grammar, syntax and vocabulary is used less and less by the "standard" 21st English speaker because of antiquity of the 17th century English language of the KJV, I turn to the modern versions. This was the suggestion of the KJV translators themselves as has been often quoted that a variety of English translations is a good thing to capture "the sense" of the Scriptures.

    As He has done down through the ages, however if the TRANSLATION itself is so inerrant why then the hundreds of years of corrections to the text since God Himself is incapable of the smallest error?

    This was one complaints of the Dissenters, AnaBaptists, Baptists, Puritans, etc leveled against what they called the "ecclesiastical" errors of the AV brought about by the King of England's influence and his remaining romish views on the Church of England's Bible (published with the heretical Apocrypha).

    It would seem that you approve of the office of "deacon" deacon but (as a For instance) some of them objected to the use of the AV word "Bishop". Does your Baptist Church have the office of "Bishop"? The Word of God declares and approves of the office of "Bishop" as a good thing. Do you? Does your local Church?

    1 Timothy 3:1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work.

    Others (immersionists) objected to the "mistranslation" of the following as an affirmation of baptismal sprinkling or pouring:​

    KJV Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:​

    When in reality the preposition in the Koine text is "in" (Greek "en").​

    ASV Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you in water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you in the Holy Spirit and in fire:​

    Even the Church of Rome got that part correct (though they threw in the doctrine of penance) in the Rheims NT published in 1592:​

    Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you in water unto penance, but he that shall come after me, is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you in the Holy Ghost and fire.​

    Probably because the Latin Vulgate slavishly followed the Greek text:​

    Matthew 3:11 ego quidem vos baptizo in aqua in paenitentiam qui autem post me venturus est fortior me est cuius non sum dignus calciamenta portare ipse vos baptizabit in Spiritu Sancto et igni​

    If you don't believe me deacon then this Sunday ask your "Bishop".​


    HankD​
     
    #80 HankD, Nov 11, 2006
    Last edited: Nov 11, 2006
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