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Cults, Christian Faith and Practice

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Heavenly Pilgrim, Jul 2, 2007.

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  1. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    You don't find this in the text.


    Again, not in the text.


    God Himself keeps us in a right relationship. We are His children and He is our Father. That relationship will never change. Our fellowship with our heavenly Father is affected when we fail to "walk in the Spirit" and thus "fulfill the lusts of the flesh."
     
    #201 Pastor_Bob, Aug 27, 2007
  2. Heavenly Pilgrim

    Heavenly Pilgrim New Member

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    HP: Indeed it is. The Scripture tells us clearly how it is affected, and it is not a loss of rewards that we will face. The Scripture states “as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.” That is the plain teaching of the Word of God.

    I desire to count you as my friend and brother in the Lord as well Pastor Bob. Regardless of everything else, I trust that we will find our hearts better than our heads, and will both be found having Christ as our Advocate at the judgment we both shall attend. :thumbs:
     
    #202 Heavenly Pilgrim, Aug 27, 2007
  3. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    God bless you brother. I can agree with that.
    :godisgood:
     
    #203 Pastor_Bob, Aug 27, 2007
  4. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    So you argue that "Christ is become of no effect unto you" is not the same as "severed from Christ" - and you do that because you suppose that we CAN still be saved without an effect/benefit given to us by Christ? Surely you would agree that if we EVER should come to the point that Christ (the Messiah) has no (good) effect on us -- that we can not "be saved anyway" since that IS the (good) effect that the Messiah has for sinners under the Gospel. What am I missing?

    If argue that "severed from Christ" can not possibly be the meaning of Gal 5:4 then do you also argue that "severed from Christ" (NASB and others) in Gal 5 is significantly different from the John 15 "branch removed from Christ" and so that translation should be rejected? If so -- how is it substantively different?

    It seems to be identical.

    Seems like a good definition of "not saved" -- i don't see how salvation is obtained under that sytem of "law for justification not grace". Even Gal 3 denies salvation under such conditions.

    However they clearly had to go FROM the "you were running well" condition mentioned in Gal 5 to the condemned stated of "fallen from Grace" and having Christ become of no bennefit at all to you (lost) to get to that graceless law-based justification state.

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
    #204 BobRyan, Aug 28, 2007
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