Featured David Chilton and the Greek

Yeshua1 · May 17, 2017

John of Japan said: ↑

I have to apologize. A Greek scholar friend of mine informed me that sometimes the preposition added to the verb does intensify the word. He pointed me to A. T. Robertson's big grammar, where he quotes Winer, another grammarian, who wrote that the added preposition is due to "a love for what is vivid and expressive" (Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek Testament, p. 163).

On the other hand, my friend also pointed out that Estrada and White's book, referenced by Chilton's and commented on by me in post #44 above, has been debunked by the scholars--it does not prove any early dates, and does not appear to even quote the NT, but rather the mss. fragments referred to fit the LXX.

On the other hand (the third hand? ), my scholar friend points out that John Wenham, the father of Gordon Wenham who wrote Chilton's foreward, is a credible scholar for early dating. Personally, I've looked at the evidence and agree that a pre-70 date for Revelation is possible, but even if that were true it wouldn't change my theology. There is too much in the book that could not have been fulfilled in AD 70.
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Think that the historical evidence and text itself best fits into near end of first century...

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