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Deut 32:43

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Pastor Larry, Feb 19, 2004.

  1. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    The Hebrew text, translated, reads: NAU Deuteronomy 32:43 "Rejoice, O nations, with His people; For He will avenge the blood of His servants, And will render vengeance on His adversaries, And will atone for His land and His people."

    The LXX translated reads: LXE Deuteronomy 32:43 Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people.

    The problem is that Hebrews 1:6 quotes the LXX version as Scripture.

    What say ye?
     
  2. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Here's a possibility:

    Just as the God might have used the Vulgate to preserve a few NT verses of the Word of God (e.g. 1 John 5:7) He might have used the LXX in the same way to preserve a few from the OT Word of God.

    HankD
     
  3. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    So you think we ought to add it in to our English Bibles?
     
  4. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    It's a definite possibility especially if it was "lost" in the copying of the Masora.

    HankD
     
  5. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    Here is what the Bible says,
    Deutermony 32:43 Rejoice, O ye nations, with his people: for he will avenge the blood of his servants, and will render vengeance to his adversaries, and will be merciful unto his land, and to his people.

    What's wrong with this?
     
  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Nothing wrong

    But

    Hebrews 1:6
    And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

    The only place in the entire OT (that I and presumably Pator Larry can find) where this verse can be found is in the Septuagint version at Deuteronomy 32:43, but NOT in the Masoretic text at Deuteronomy 32:43 upon which the King James is based.

    So we have KJV NT Hebrews 1:6 quoting this verse from Deuteronomy 32:43 but it is missing from the KJV OT text in Deuteronomy 32:43.

    HankD
     
  7. aefting

    aefting New Member

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    Evidently, there is a slight possibility that the author of Hebrews is quoting or alluding to Ps 97:7, but the wording is hardly exact in either the MT or LXX. It is much more likely to be a quote from Deut 32:43 LXX. There is also a Dead Sea scrolls version of Deut 32:43 that attests to the longer reading found in the LXX (from Qumran Cave 4). My guess is that there is some corruption in all the witnesses at this verse, so we have to do the best we can with the available data. I would certainly entertain the idea of adding the Hebrews, LXX, and 4QD reading to our English versions.

    I don't consider this, however, to be the same as using the Latin to correct the Greek at 1 John 5:7. First John is well attested in the extant manuscripts without the Comma. There is nothing other than tradition that would make us suspect a deficiency at 1 John 5:7. With Deut 32:43, on the other hand, we have a clear reference in inspiried Scripture that points to an ommision.


    Andy
     
  8. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    That's because the NT points BACK to it.

    HankD
     
  9. aefting

    aefting New Member

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    Right, that's exactly what I was trying to say.

    Andy
     
  10. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    The comma is in the NT and has nothing to point to it.

    But it is true that the only early witnesses of the Comma are Latin and Latin fathers. There are 6 late Greek witnesses.

    HankD
     
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