Dispensationalists

Ed,

Why don't you just admit that your reference to 1 Corinthians 10:32 doesn't support your contention that there is more than one people of God?

It is demeaning to me and DPT to suggest that this is now a rabbit trail that you aren't going to waste your time on, when you are the one who started the rabbit trail.

Just admit that this text doesn't support what you claimed it supported and we can all let it drop like so many rabbit t _ _ _ s.

Actually, having read the complete post, I now see that you are basically admitting that the text referenced refers to unbelieving Jews, unbelieving Gentiles, and the church of God. Now even you know that unbelievers are not part of the church, rendering your previous question absurd.

 

Interesting:

page 2 - 13 Mysteies - no comment
page 2 - The four 'of's of dispensation - no discussion
page 2 - the 3 salvations of Christ (this isn't even dispensationalism) -- no discussion
page 2 - a Bible word study on 'age' (Gr: aeon) - no comment
page 2 - OOPS 13 Mysteries again. I didn't know till this post
i'd put that in twice - not only no comment, nobody jumped on my error???
page 3 - definition of economy - no takers
page 2 - an essay on Dispensation (how bout that in a topic about
Dispensationalism ) - no comment

What is going on here? would anybody like to discuss Dispensationalists?

 

Ed,

You still NOT yet answer Paul33's question of 1 Cor. 10:27-32. You still hopping as rabbit. Please answer straight to Paul33's question.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

Ed, we will answer one by one when you stop evading the real debate.

For every misleading statement you make, when challenged, you don't engage in debate, you just throw out more red herrings and absurdities, that quite frankly are too rediculous to answer.

But since you claim 1 Cor. 10:27-32 teaches that there are three peoples of God, please explain in light of the context of the passage.

You see, dispensationalists of Ed's ilk are prone to violate the very historical-grammatical hermeneutic they claim to uphold. And they do it again and again. 1 Cor. 10:27-32 is just one blatant example of Ed's violation of the historical-grammatical hermeutic and is why he is now running for cover under a barage of "new" debate points.

 

Ed,

Paul33 is waiting for you to answer all his questions of 1 Cor. 10:27-33. Stay on the same track, do not hopping off the track, please.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

And letting you do the work of harassing me? How sad.

Paul33: "But since you claim 1 Cor. 10:27-32 teaches that there are three peoples of God, please explain in light of the context of the passage."

You don't understand what i'm claiming.
You don't understand what i'm saying, though i'm trying to
share a profound truth of God with you and have tried twice
so far. You are ignoring what i said that was important.
What i was trying to say is not worth two pages so far,
it was hardly worth mentioning in passing.

The subject here is DISPENSATIONAL, not ed's debating technique,
not the harassment of ed with repeated questions, not the
strange teaming of two opponents who don't even agree with
each other. Can somebody write a paragraph whose subject
is DISPENSATIONS?

 

Ed,

Then, your logical of 1 Cor. 10:32 is a fallacy, because you are not able to answer all of Paul33's questions of 1 Cor. 10:27-32.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

Reminds me of the ad where the postman
is doing how round with a dog attached
to his stomach

 

So?

Why cannot you willing to answer all of Paul33's questions of 1 Cor. 10:27-33.

Sorry, I do not mean to say it repeat. But, you seems refuse or keep on stubborn being avoid to answer Paul33's questions. Why?

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

Dispensationalism is not the doctrine of God. Classic dispensationalism as it is practiced today is a doctrine based primarily on the teachings of John Nelson Darby and popularized by the Scofield Reference bible.

 

You finally posted something with which I can agree: The Mystery of the Rapture. Just think. You have it in your power to clear up this mystery if you would just show one passage of Scripture that demonstrates a pretrib rapture.

 

Isaiah 46:9-10 (HCSB)

Remember what happened long ago,
for I am God, and there is no other;
[I am]God, and no one is like Me.
10 I declare the end from the beginning,
and from long ago what is not yet done,
saying: My plan will take place,
and I will do all My will.

In God's economy, the end is known at the beginning.
So God's written word tends to declare things
that are not yet seen as being done

To answer your question: There will be
no divisions within the Body of Christ.
But in this age we are in (the Church Age,
not the mystic's age) there are divisions:

1 Corinthians 10:32 (KJV1769) /caps added by ed/:
Give none offence, neither to the JEWS,
nor to the GENTILES, nor to the CHURCH OF GOD. </font>[/QUOTE]Ed Edwards

Given your statement: "But in this age we are in (the Church Age, not the mystic's age) there are divisions"; What does the Apostle Paul mean when he states the following?

Galatians 3:25-29[KJV, 1769]
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.

 

I do understand what you are saying. I summarized it in a recent post and you admitted that I know what you are saying.

You throw accusations around, left and right. But what you fail to do, is answer questions in a discussion format.

Ed, all you need to do is say, "I believe that there are more than one people of God, but my reference to 1 Cor. 10:27-32 doesn't support my view."

Why can't you correct an obvious misstatement on your part?

 

In God's view of eternity there
is no diffences. In all practical, non-God
applications, watch which group you belong in.


If you would like a second opinion, i have one
(second related to one )

"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus."

The unity is IN JESUS not on the surface of
the earth in this age.

harass - 2. to trouble by repeated raits
or attacks.

 

Ed,

Gal.3:25-29 is not talking about unity, as if all believers in Christ are in agreement about everything. We know that's not true, by experience.

The above passage is teaching that those who are in Christ are one. A Baptist, a Lutheran, a Roman Catholic, A Jew, who believe in Christ are one. We are one body, one people. And as one body, we are the spiritual seed of Abraham and heirs according to the promise that was originally given to Abraham!

One People. Not two, not three. One.

 

Here is the Biblical definition of "Mystery":
Eph 3:3-5 (KJV1611 edition):

How that by reuelation hee made knowen vnto me the mysterie, (as I wrote afore in few words,
Eph 3:4 Whereby when ye reade, ye may vnderstand my knowledge in the mysterie of Christ.)
Eph 3:5 Which in other ages was not made knowen vnto the sonnes of men, as it is now reueiled vnto his holy Apostles and Prophets by the Spirit,

"Clear up this mystery" cannot be spoken
of Biblical mysteries. So though one used
"mystery" twice, it was two different defintions
of of the word. This is a case of the
logical fallacy of accent.

INTRODUCTION TO LOGIC, FIFTH EDITION
(MacMillan Publishing, 1978) page 112

"Like all fallacies of ambiguity, the fallacy
of accent is committed in an argument whose
deceptive but invalid nature depends upon
a change or shift in meaning.

Logical errors are not really all that funny

 

By the way, even in the OT, the one people of Israel had twelve tribes.

Even so, the one people of God today consists of all believing Jews and Gentiles whatever their denominational label. And it is this one people of God who will endure the tribulation and who are looking forward to the coming of Christ, when the marriage supper of the Lamb takes place at Christ's second coming after the tribulation (Rev. 19).

 

Is God unity or trininy?

Yes.

Are God's people one or many?

Yes.

But that is hard to explain to those
who don't want to understand.

 

Why is it that when non dispensationalists ask questions that never get answered they are accused of violating the forum rules, however, the dispensationalists feel free to break these rules at will? [Ref: 7:32 Pm and 8:06 PM posts by Ed Edwards.]

 

Should be "trinity".

Sorry about that typo.