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Featured Divorce and Remarriage

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by 1689Dave, Apr 21, 2018.

  1. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    1 Corinthians 7:13-15
    King James Version (KJV)

    13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.

    14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.

    15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.



    What you are saying is a brother and sister is in bondage...to the Law.

    What Paul is saying is that a brother and sister is not in bondage in such cases...period.

    There is no way to work an "...except when they are bound by the Law" in there.


    1 Corinthians 7:39
    King James Version (KJV)

    39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.



    The point here is that a wife is not free to leave a marriage just because she wants to. Paul makes that point in v.13.

    You are nullifying Scripture in favor of another, when what we need to do is bring careful balance to all Scripture, so that there is no conflict.

    That is what the Protestant/Catholic debate does, it pits Scripture against Scripture, thereby nullifying one in favor of another:


    Romans 4:3, 5-6
    King James Version (KJV)

    3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

    5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

    6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,


    James 2:21-24
    King James Version (KJV)

    21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?

    22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?

    23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.

    24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.


    If you would read Romans 4 you would see that both Paul and James speak of the same justification, and the same works:


    Romans 4:17-22
    King James Version (KJV)

    17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.

    18 Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.

    19 And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sarah's womb:

    20 He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;

    21 And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.

    22 And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.



    Do you see how Abraham...believed the Gospel? And that the Gospel he understood was that he would be the father of many nations, and that is why...

    ...he was justified? Why his faith and belief was credited to him for faith?

    That is precisely the same justification James is speaking about:


    James 2:21
    King James Version (KJV)

    21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?


    Hebrews 11:18-19
    King James Version (KJV)

    18 Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:

    19 Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.


    He received Isaac up from the dead in figure because He was willing to slay Isaac, knowing that Isaac would be raised from the dead...

    ...so that the Promise of God (that in Isaac He would make of Abraham many nations) would be fulfilled.

    That is the Gospel heard by Abraham:


    Galatians 3:6-8
    King James Version (KJV)

    6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

    7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.

    8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.



    So back to pitting Scripture against Scripture, which is what you are doing, instead of interpreting Scripture with Scripture: James and Paul are not speaking of Justification through the Redemption which is in Christ Jesus.

    They are speaking in the temporal sense, not in the eternal.

    You do the same thing Catholics and Protestants (and pretty much everyone) do which is to misunderstand one text then apply that error to interpret another.

    You cannot nullify Paul's statement...

    1 Corinthians 7:13-15
    King James Version (KJV)

    13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.

    14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.

    15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.



    ...with...


    1 Corinthians 7:39
    King James Version (KJV)

    39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.



    God bless.
     
  2. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    So where do you see remarriage after divorce not involving one in adultery? Divorce only separates the married. It does not remove the marriage. And adultery does not break the marriage bond, if it did people would no longer be committing adultery as soon as they started committing it.
     
  3. Darrell C

    Darrell C Well-Known Member
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    Here:

    1 Corinthians 7:13-15
    King James Version (KJV)

    13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.

    14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.

    15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.



    If you maintain the rigid principle which you are interpreting with, then Paul's statement above is imposed on this...


    1 Corinthians 7:39
    King James Version (KJV)

    39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.



    Meaning, Paul states one is bound so long as the husband is married, and this is general to marriage, whereas his statement "a brother or sister is not bound" in cases such as the example he gives.

    Do you think Paul speaks of two different bindings?


    That is simply not the case. We have to include the simple principles...


    1 Corinthians 7
    King James Version (KJV)


    2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

    9 But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.



    Your legalistic manner of interpretation ignores that divorce is permissible in extreme cases, and ignores that it is God's will that we not live in lust, tempted to commit fornication.


    What twaddle.

    Exactly what kind of fellowship do you attend, Dave?


    Fornication is a reason given by Christ for divorce:


    Matthew 5:32
    King James Version (KJV)

    32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.



    Those put away for the cause of fornication (illicit intimate relations) are not under the judgment Christ gives here.

    Paul teaches...fornication is a bad thing.

    Paul teaches God has called us unto peace.

    Paul teaches that an unbelieving spouse can be allowed to leave.

    Paul does not teach, "Sorry, but either stay in the marriage with the unbeliever or be destined to burn with lust and commit fornication."


    God bless.
     
  4. revmwc

    revmwc Well-Known Member

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    How would you make this call?

    Husband spanks step son, step son trips and hits eye area on dresser. Wife freaks out afraid the boy has a concussion with a small bump on the eye.

    Wife calls CPS says husband spanked her son and drove him into the dresser, she was not present when it occurred but 4 year old stated he fell into dresser. Wife tells the spanking was in anger and her boys were made to sit their rooms for long periods of time when in fact they were sent to their rooms to play.

    CPS removes wife along with the two oldest (strep children to the husband) and two younger siblings (husbands children) from the home. Wife barely communicates with the husband and after 3 months hasn't even come to CPS office for a parental visit.

    State doesn't recognize a legal separation and in order to get custody or even visitation a divorce proceeding must be occurring. Should husband begin divorce or just remain separated and leave her with his two children never to see them again? Would he have biblical grounds for the divorce? He will most likely never remarry but desperately wants his boys back and her, he doesn't want a divorce she says she will not give him anymore chances.

    As a side not the oldest two were conceived and born out of wedlock and she was a drug and alcohol addict that has been straight since the marriage and living with husbands parents. Will she now revert back to that lifestyle and endanger the children?
     
  5. atpollard

    atpollard Well-Known Member

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    A divorce will be economicaly devistating for the husband (if he pays the child support) or economically devistating for the children if he doesn't. In either case, statistics show that children recover from the death of a parent faster than the divorce of a parent.

    My advice is that if he really believes that she is an unfit mother endangering their children, document it (preferably through a neutral party like a PI) and file for custody. It may also discredit her earlier report against him.

    Now he will be free to follow the example of Hosea and remain married to a woman who is seperated from him as he prays and works for reconciliation.

    [Of course the great problem with all of this is we are only hearing one side, when there are always three sides ... his side, her side, and what really happened.]
     
  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Adultery and sexual sins and desertion would break the bond in sight of God!
     
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