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Does Geneva have older English than KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, Feb 22, 2008.

  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps the main reason that they did not was because of the first rule given the KJV translators [The ordinary Bible read in the Church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the truth of the original will permit]. Some renderings may be in the KJV simply because the KJV translators left them there from the Bishops' Bible.

    Thankfully, the KJV translators did seem to follow the Geneva Bible more often than the Bishops' Bible. Nevertheless, there were some other places were the text of the 1611 edition of the KJV could have been better if they had also followed the Geneva Bible there instead of keeping the rendering of the Bishops. In fact, there are a good number of times when later editors introduced changes into the text of the 1611 edition of the KJV that the change agreed with the text of the Geneva while the original 1611 rendering had been kept from the Bishops' Bible.
     
  2. thomas15

    thomas15 Well-Known Member

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    Hard to tell, sir.
     
  3. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

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    I'm not interested enough in most of this (as to which actually has "older English") to take the time to do any exhaustive study of the Geneva Bible, but would simply note that the Geneva Bible does a better job of rendering " ἡ ἀποστασία" in II Thess. 2:3 (as does WEB, TYT, WYC and the footnotes of the AMP) as "departure", than do the KJV, NIV, HCSB, ASV, and NASB, among most others. (My underlining!)
    Thanks, Ed Edwards. :thumbs:
    "Rebellion" (NIV) and "falling away" (KJV, ASV, YLT,) are both poor renditions, IMO, for they simply carry too many unspoken theological implications pre-imposed upon the verse.

    "Apostasy" (WEY, NASB, HCSB, DARBY) is somewhat better, even if basically a transliteration.

    "Departing" (TNT, WYC), and "departure" (GEN, WEB, AMP footnote) are the best renderings here, however, with the "theological implications" supplied by the context.

    Ed
     
    #23 EdSutton, Mar 3, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 3, 2008
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