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Does it make a difference?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Nimrod, Apr 22, 2003.

  1. Nimrod

    Nimrod New Member

    Aug 20, 2002
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    With all these different transations, Does it make a difference?

    The USB3 of the Greek new Testament produced by the United Bible Societies(Another big topic), represet the type of text upon most modern versions are based. The KJV follow a different type of text, a close cousin of the Majority Text. The discrepancy between USB3 and the Majority Text is around 8%. In a Greek text with 600 pages that represent 48 solid pages worth of discrepancies. About a fifth reflects omissions in the USB3, so it is some 10 pages shorter than the Majority Text. Although perhaps half of the differences between the Majority and USB3 might be terms "inconsequential", I suppose that leaves some 25 pages worth of differences that are significant (in varying degrees). In Spite of these differences it is usually assumed that no cardinal Christian doctrine is at risk.

    So then what is the problem?

    The USB3 incorporates plain errors of fact and contradictions such that any claim that the New Testament is divinely inspired becomes relative, and the doctrine of inerrancy becomes untenable. During this whole century the credibility crisis has been forced upon the attention of the laity by modern versions that enclose parts of the text in brackets and have numerous footnotes of a sort that raise doubts about the integrity of the Text.

    Luke 4:44 "of Galilee"

    Problem: Jesus was in Galilee and continued there, not in Judea.

    In the parallel passage, Mark 1:35-39, all texts agree that Jesus was in Galilee. Thus USB3 contradicts itself by reading Judea in Luke 4:44.(NASB, NRSV, NAB, NIV,...)
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

    Oct 24, 2001
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    The NIV contains the following footnote:

    4:44 Or the land of the Jews; some manuscripts Galilee
  3. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
    Site Supporter

    May 4, 2001
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    Having ministered exclusively with MVs for the last 7 years, I fail to find this "credibility" crisis in the pews. The only people with the "credibility crisis" are the KJVOs. The rest of the people just don't have it.

    If you look up this word in the lexicons, you see that the word refers to "he wider region occupied by the Jewish nation (Ac 10.37; .20; Mt 19.1)" (Louw-Nida), "in a broader sense, the whole of Palestine as occupied by the Jewish nation Jewish country (AC 26.20), Jewish territory (MT 19.1)" (Friberg), "in a broader sense, to all Palestine: Luke 1:5; (Luke 4:44 WH Tr marginal reading); Luke 7:11; 23:5; Acts 2:9; 10:37; 11:1,29 (and perhaps 2 Cor. 1:16; Gal. 1:22)" (Thayer).

    So this "contradiction" is one that the Lexicons seem not to have a problem with. It appears that someone was trying to hard to come up with a problem that just doesn't exist.