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Easter or Passover in Acts 12

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Chet, Aug 5, 2001.

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  1. Chet

    Chet New Member

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    In my post, "Questions for both Sides" I questioned the translation of Easter by the KJV translators. A brother sent me a private E-Mail to explain his point of view. At first I really disagreed with the explanation, but then started to really think about it. I did my own search and found this site which basically had the same explanation. PLEASE click on the link and read this short page on the KJVO explanation: Easter in the KJV

    Now that you have read it, I want to say that seems like is a good argument. But it did not satisfy me.

    Pascha appears 29 times in the NT. Why in all the world did the KJV Translators decide to translate it "easter" here and "passover" everywhere else? It seems as if they would have to have has an "inspiration" from God all over again. How did they know simply by looking at the word that God wanted "easter" there? I just don't understand that. It seems to me it should be passover.

    But if it is really passover, then is there a question of "time" here? Did Herod need to wait a year by his statement?

    Thanks for all help.

    With love

    Chet
     
    #1 Chet, Aug 5, 2001
  2. DocCas

    DocCas New Member

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    Look the word up in a good dictionary. In 1611 the word "Easter" meant the Jewish Passover! It is just that simple.
     
    #2 DocCas, Aug 5, 2001
  3. Chris Temple

    Chris Temple New Member

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    <BLOCKQUOTE>quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by Thomas Cassidy:
    Look the word up in a good dictionary. In 1611 the word "Easter" meant the Jewish Passover! It is just that simple.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

    Huh? :confused: :confused: :confused:

    From http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary

    Main Entry: Eas·ter
    Pronunciation: 'E-st&r
    Function: noun
    Etymology: Middle English estre, from Old English Eastre; akin to Old High German Ostarun (plural) Easter, Old English East east
    Date: before 12th century
    : a feast that commemorates Christ's resurrection and is observed with variations of date due to different calendars on the first Sunday after the paschal full moon
     
    #3 Chris Temple, Aug 5, 2001
  4. DocCas

    DocCas New Member

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    I said a "good" dictionary. "Easter" 2. The Jewish Passover. Oxford English Dictionary.
     
    #4 DocCas, Aug 5, 2001
  5. Psalm145 3

    Psalm145 3 New Member

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    The "Easter" of Acts 12:4 occured after the Passover. Acts 12:3 says it was the "the days of unleavened bread."
    The feast of unleavened bread followed the Passover. See Numbers 28:16-25. This Easter was after the feast of unleavened bread. "Easter" refers to a pagan holiday and is the proper translation to distinguish it from the Jewish Passover.

    We must remember the context of the verse, it is a season that is noted. Besides, the Passover season has for years been expressed in English as "Easter."
     
    #5 Psalm145 3, Aug 5, 2001
  6. Forever settled in heaven

    Forever settled in heaven New Member

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    hey, if at first it doesn't work, CHANGE the dictionary! keep trying, till u find a GOOD dictionary!


     
    #6 Forever settled in heaven, Aug 5, 2001
  7. Rockfort

    Rockfort x

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    <BLOCKQUOTE>quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by Thomas Cassidy:
    I said a "good" dictionary. "Easter" 2. The Jewish Passover. Oxford English Dictionary.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

    And a "GOOD" dictionary is one which says what the reader wants to see; right?
     
    #7 Rockfort, Aug 5, 2001
  8. DocCas

    DocCas New Member

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    Last warning to both Rockfort and ForeverSettled. I will not allow this forum to degenerate into childish oneupmanship and denigration and disparagement of the statements of others. If you wish to discuss the issue, feel free to do so, but the above two posts are over the line.

    It is virtually universally acknowledged by academics that the OED is the standard reference work on the English language. It sets the standard all others try to achieve. If you don't like the OED because it mitigates against your bias, too bad. Knock off the childishness now or I will begin deleting posts.

    The Moderator
     
    #8 DocCas, Aug 6, 2001
  9. DocCas

    DocCas New Member

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    Psalm 145 3, I disagree. In my opinion we don't have to go to such lengths to support the reading of Easter. Admittedly the word "Easter" has its roots in the word "Ishtar" but there is no evidence from the Greek that "Ishtar" was being refered to here. In 1611 the word meant both the Christian resurrection day and the Jewish passover. I find that explanation much more compelling than the "Ishtar" position. [​IMG]
     
    #9 DocCas, Aug 6, 2001
  10. Chet

    Chet New Member

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    Thomas Cassidy,

    Thanks for responding. IF it were true that Easter in 1611 meant Jewish Passover then perhaps then we must consider the fact that this rendering of the Greek word Pascha is now considered incorrect because the "modern" definition has changed.

    But I do not believe that it meant Jewish Passover. Even if a dictionary said it did. Easter had it orgins from paganism, and it is now considered Christian. Nowhere is Easter thought to be Jewish.

    And why would the KJV translators decide to translate Pascha Easter here but nowhere else if in 1611 it simply meant "Jewish Passover"? Let me give this example, Lets say I was to write a Spanish person a letter and in that letter I refered to Tuesday 29 times. It could say, " Hello, I really enjoyed our meeting Tuesday. I would like to meet again next Tuesday. Tuesdays are good days for me. But if you can't meet me Tuesday then Tuesday may be bad from now on. Tuesdays are always the day following Monday. But I still like Tuesday..." 29 times the Spanish translator would translate Tuesday into Tuesday in Spanish. Then all of a sudden on one of the "Tuesdays" they thought "Easter" would fit better? This makes no sense to me.

    With love,

    Chet
     
    #10 Chet, Aug 6, 2001
  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Something is definitely amiss here.

    What difference does it make what the word "easter" meant in 1611?
    What was the word and what did the word mean when it was originally penned?
    Was it the Jewish Passover or the Gentile IshtarDay or the Christian Easter Sunday.
    That is what it will be through out eternity.
    The connection with "the days of unleavened bread" should settle the matter forever.
    This is the seder celebration.
    So what if the days of unleavened bread came after the Passover meal it was all considered part of the pascha celebration
    now known as the Seder.
    Passover lasts for 8 days (7 for Reformed Jews).
    To somehow find a heathen celebration of ishtar here is to pull a rabbit out of a hat.

    [​IMG] Sorry I couldn't resist that one.

    HankD
     
    #11 HankD, Aug 6, 2001
  12. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Thomas Cassidy said:

    I said a "good" dictionary. "Easter" 2. The Jewish Passover. Oxford English Dictionary.

    I wonder whether the OED lists "the Jewish passover" as a definition for Easter because of its anachronistic use in some English Bibles? I don't think Dr. C's abridged citation is telling the whole story.
     
    #12 Ransom, Aug 7, 2001
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