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ESV: Demon Oppressed vs. Possessed

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by mesly, May 31, 2004.

  1. mesly

    mesly Member

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    I have noticed as I have been reading the ESV that it uses the phrase, "demon-oppressed" where all other translations use, "demon-possessed".

    For instance:

    compared to

    This is carreid on in many other verses. When looking at Strongs Concordance, it states that:

    Can anybody shed light on why the ESV has used oppressed instead of possessed?
     
  2. go2church

    go2church Active Member
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  3. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    My opinion is that a believer can be demon oppressed but only a non-believer can be demon possessed.

    I have personally seen men who were not controlled by the Holy Spirit and claimed to be believers whose voices changed and became angrywhen I confronted them about some issues in their lives. They rose up against me and caused me a lot of trouble. It sure caused me to question my theology.

    Other than that I do not have any answers.
     
  4. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    There is neither "oppressed" or "possessed" inherent in the greek participle. It is simply the passive participle of the greek noun "demon". (And assume all understand passive participles - action working on the person)

    So it is the condition of being acted upon by demonic forces. Using either word is "interpretation", not exact translation.

    It would be more accurate to say "demonized" today.
     
  5. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    Dr. Bob, thanks for the post.

    I posted this on another thread on this topic --"demonize" when examined in scripture seems to mean possessed, because in those cases, the demons (or demons) was "cast out." I've been told by those who know Greek that it is very specific that something is being literally cast out of someone, so it shows possession. In other words, "demonize" should be translated as demon-possessed.

    I did not realize the ESV used "demon-oppressed." I'm glad I know that because now I know not to recommend that version. I think it's confusing and plays into some of the modern (and erroneous, imo) teachings on spiritual warfare that try to say demon oppressed and demon possessed are the same thing, therefore Christians can be possessed, which is not the conclusion I and others come to from the Bible.
     
  6. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Dr Bob is 100% correct. This is a situation where there isn't an exact translation. Arguing "oppression" vs "possession" point is completely fruitless to the scriptures in question.

    I agree that "demonized" is probably the best way to refer to the condition referred to in the aforementioned verse.
     
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