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Faith "of" Christ?

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Bartholomew, Nov 16, 2002.

  1. Bartholomew

    Bartholomew New Member

    Feb 18, 2002
    Likes Received:

    What do any of you think the Authorised Version means when it talks about the "faith of Christ"? e.g.

    "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:" (Romans 3:23)

    "Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified. (Galations 2:16)"

    Is this faith that comes "from" (i.e. "of") Christ? I've heard some say that the OT saints were saved by their own faith, but we're saved by Jesus's faith? Or is it just the way the English language has changed since 1611? The AV translators must have had some reason for translating it the way they did...


    Your friend and brother,

    Bartholomew :confused:
  2. rkbo

    rkbo New Member

    Nov 2, 2002
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    some of the verses are properly rendered the "faithfullness of Christ". Others are Faith in Christ. You see faith has to have an object. We have faith in something. To be faithfull is simply to be trustworthy. Just remember faith is not a force. It refers to a force or points to something. You can not have faith in faith. You can only have faith in a object.

    Jesus was not a faith being. That is he did not have faith. That's right. Faith is believing in something not seen. Jesus has seen the Father and is in fact God himself. So he does not exercise faith. He exercises power, wich comes from himself.

    [ November 16, 2002, 08:59 PM: Message edited by: rkbo ]