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Final Authority before 1611?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Cix, Aug 19, 2004.

  1. Orvie

    Orvie New Member

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    Kinda reminds me of my ole buddy, "Precepts" Man! I miss his entertainment. Oops! Michelle, my bell whatta close 2d ya are to Mr Precepts. ;) [​IMG] ;)
     
  2. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    The Bible requires the separation. The NIV business ignores the Biblical instruction concerning the separation.
     
  3. Orvie

    Orvie New Member

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    The Bible requires the separation. The NIV business ignores the Biblical instruction concerning the separation. </font>[/QUOTE]i.e. what's good for the goose, is NOT good for the gander.
     
  4. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times.
     
  5. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Is it possible that our dear michelle is a troll who is just baiting the folks on this board to get their dander up? That's the most charitable explanation I can arrive at ...
     
  6. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    If you believe in God of not confusion, you better quit using MVs.
     
  7. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Or if you believe in a god of confusion, you can go ahead to use MVs.
     
  8. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Of course that is my assumption. Working on proving it. Cannot believe anyone would actually believe what she says she believes.

    Doing an isp search to be sure this isn't the daughter of riplinger, infamous internet troll that sounds as syruppy pious and flaming. She sure is sounding more and more like it.
     
  9. natters

    natters New Member

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    Askjo said "The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times."

    FALSE WITNESS.

    How pathetic can this get????
     
  10. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Nice Montra, Askjo -- Sing it!

    BTW, care to give examples and/or tell us
    what you think it means.

    KJVO - harbinger of the new age Baptist

    [​IMG]
     
  11. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    I have first-hand proof. :rolleyes:
     
  12. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    That means YOU.
     
  13. Orvie

    Orvie New Member

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    Or if you believe in a god of confusion, you can go ahead to use MVs. </font>[/QUOTE]If you believe God is not able to speak to us in today's language, be a KJVO:kjbo, if you believe that God's Word for today's readers must be stale instead of fresh, that the Sword is rusty (old English) instead of razor sharp (today's English, highly accurately translated), then you're a KJVO:kjbo. ;)
     
  14. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Start posting it.

    HankD
     
  15. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    The NIV omitted the deity of Jesus Christ in the NT alone almost 200 times.

    BWAHAHAHAHAHA!
     
  16. Cix

    Cix New Member

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    Michele, WHERE do you think that the KJV came from? Did it just magically appear in a bookstore in 1611? Or was it T R A N S L A T E D from GREEK and HEBREW? If the Greek and Hebrew was good enough for the King James translators why isn't it good enough for you? How would you check to see if something was translated accurately? You would go BACK TO THE ORIGINALS and COMPARE them with the translation. The originals being Greek and Hebrew, which are the inspired word of GOD and are 100% without any errors.
     
  17. Cix

    Cix New Member

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    19 pages for this thread and I still don't have an answer from a KJVonly-ite as to "WHAT WAS THE FINAL AUTHORITY BEFORE 1611?"
     
  18. Scott J

    Scott J Active Member
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    ... and in Luke 4:18 God inspired Luke to record what Jesus read from the text of Isaiah 61:1 that he held in His very own hands. IT WAS OBVIOUSLY DIFFERENT FROM THE TEXT USED BY THE KJV TRANSLATORS for Isaiah 61.

    You still have not dealt with this fact. The KJV contains two versions of Isaiah 61:1. I have no problem accepting them both. In fact, I have no problem saying that they mean the same thing and are therefore both the perfect Word of God. But that is because I am consistent and do not resort to double standards.

    These two passages in the KJV are both valid in the exact same way that the NKJV and NASB along with the KJV are all valid.
     
  19. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    There won't be an answer even when this is closed on page 20 :( .
     
  20. Cix

    Cix New Member

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    There won't be an answer even when this is closed on page 20 :( . </font>[/QUOTE]It's sad that some people have the answer and some people are clueless as to what that answer is.
     
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