For Modern Versions onlyists

I have a confession. I am a MVOnlyist.

I don't use a version of scripture nor reference a text... why to be honest, I have never even held a Bible that was not produced 1400 years or more after the God-inspired originals. All of my Bibles are MV's... even the 1611 Anglican product. </font>[/QUOTE]

 

None of all questions in this poll, I answer. All of them are almost same defintion. I like Webster's better, it defines more clear. Does not mean that I against KJV. Also, I am not Modern Version onlyist. I never hear anyone called them, 'Modern Versions Onlyist' before. I know many baptists use different verisons, do not mean that they against KJV. I know many of them do read any versions to comparing with KJV while studying at home. So far, I know none of many baptists saying that they against KJV, while use NIV, or NKJV, etc.

My understanding of corrupt means, to destruction, or to twisted something.

Didn't you know that word, 'corrupt' is not in Textus Receptus? In Greek word for corrupt is 'hawking'. I looked at Interlinear Greek-English New Testament by Jay Green. That is classical Greek word from Textus Receptus. I like King James Version word - 'corrupt' better. That does not mean that I against TR. More important that we able to understand English word better in our own language.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 - Amen!

 

There's a difference in actually corrupting God's word and misusing it. Misuse would be to murder a homosexual because OT Scripture says to execute them, while to corrupt would be to change the Word itself, such as saying in John 3:16, "so that whoever works diligently in My name shall be saved". I believe Paul was referring to the hucksters of his time who carried copies of Scripture & pretended to be vehicles of the Holy Spirit, such as Simon the Sorcerer wanted to be, & who sold "blessings" for money.

 

Kinda like the KJV, Askjo. With no knowledge of the Greek, how does a reader know exactly WHICH LOVE Jesus was asking Peter about?

 

Use Strong's concordance. It is very helpful for you to understand the definition. </font>[/QUOTE]I have Strong's concordance, & several others, which I use to prove Will Kinney's version-by-version comparisons to be propaganda, among other things. However, my question has to do with where Jesus asks Peter, "Do you LOVE Me?" There's NO distinguishing the degree of love as expressed in the Greek.

Why does it matter? Because more than one KJVO refers to "the Greek" when hollering about the fact that MVs have replaced "thy, thou, thee, ye" with "you, your, yours". (as has English usage in general! This is apparently over the KJVOs' heads.) But again, the KJVO often thinks it's OK to use a double standard.

(Hey, Ed Edwards! Take note!)