For whom did Christ die?

BobRyan · Jun 25, 2003

Carson said --
In Romans 3:1-8, Paul shows what advantage there is to being a Jew. Then, in 3:9 and following, Paul demonstrates the "charge against Jews and Greeks alike that they are all under the domination of sin", and he quotes Psalm 14:1-3.

The 5-Point Calvinist, in order to defend his doctrine of total depravity, must assume and require that Paul is taking this OT quotation out of its original context.

In Psalm 14:1-3, David says:

"The fool says in his heart, 'There is no God.' They are corrupt, they do abominable deeds, there is none that does good. The LORD looks down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there are any that act wisely, that seek after God. They have all gone astray, they are all alike corrupt; there is none that does good, no, not one."

So far, the 5-Point Calvinist seems to be right on.. at least, until one goes on to consider the next 3 verses:

"Have they no knowledge, all the evildoers who eat up my people as they eat bread, and do not call upon the LORD? There they shall be in great terror, for God is with the generation of the righteous. You would confound the plans of the poor, but the LORD is his refuge."

David spent most of his life fleeing from fellow Israelites (e.g. Saul & Absalom), and Paul - in quoting this passage - shows an OT prooftext (if you will), which demonstrates that both Jew and Gentile are in need of salvation.
Click to expand...

The problem is that ALL are in need of salvation - not just the really bad guys.

And Paul starts off that section saying "Are WE better than THEY"?

He then concludes "By the works of the Law shall No Flesh be justified" and this is true because ALL have sinned - all are condemned all are guilty - and the application of "no one seeks after God" must then apply to that same group of "ALL" who can not be justified by the works of the Law. The same "ALL" who have sinned.

In Christ,

Bob

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For whom did Christ die?

BobRyan Well-Known Member