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Featured God died for James Holmes

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by evangelist6589, Jul 26, 2012.

  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Heard that sam of Son and Bundy receive Christ also!
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    God the Son died on the Cross...

    NOT ALL of the Godhead!

    And that was a physical Death, Hid deity did not die on Cross!
     
  3. blackbird

    blackbird Active Member

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    Physically-----God has a body----His physical body died on the cross----His physical heart stopped beating on the cross----His physical blood stopped circulating on the cross-----God's physical blood was what was used to purchase His Church-----God in Human form died or there would be no salvation/redemption wrought through God being resurrected from the dead three days later!!----God in human form was raised from the dead----God in human form is now in invisible Heaven--waiting to be revealed on the last day!! Throughout all eternity---God will always reside in a human body!!:type::type::type:-----not meaning to rain on anyone's parade---but the Bible teaches that "in Jesus resides the fullness of the Godhead bodily"
     
    #23 blackbird, Jul 26, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 26, 2012
  4. reformed_baptist

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    Well, lets just look at 1 jn 2:2 in more detail without the rose tinted spectacles of our traditions shall we :D

    1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

    Now if we are saying this verse means 'every single person who has ever lived' when it uses the term 'world' we have to ask what exactly has Jesus Christ for 'every person who has ever lived.' and the text says he has become the 'propitiation' which means more then 'atoneing sacrifice' it has the sense of appeasement to it as well - ie it turns the nager of God into the smile of God. So God is appeased in relation to the sin of every person who has ever lived, and christ Jesus has atoned for all their sin. Simply put then, they cannot go to hell, because is no longer angry with them!

    Hewnce are left with only two conclusions either 'world' does not mean what you want it to, or John was teaching universalism.
     
  5. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    He did indeed. He did indeed.
     
  6. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    The NIV says "the atoning sacrifice" as thats the version I prefer for this verse. Actually Christ did die for every single man! Read the following verses.

    1 Timothy 4:10
    For therefore we both labour and sufer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

    1 Timothy 2:4
    Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth

    Heb 2:9
    But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

    2 Pet 2:1
    But there were also false prophets among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you. They will secretly introduce destructive heresies, even denying the sovereign Lord who bought them —bringing swift destruction on themselves.

    The Bible nowhere teaches universalism. Rather it teaches that Jesus died for the sins of all mankind, and wants all to repent and come to faith (2 Pet 3:9). Reformed often try and re-interpret 2 Pet 3:9 among other verses to fit into their 16th century "system" of theology. The point here is that Christ Jesus even died for the sins of the false teachers and all of mankind. He knows whom will come and who will reject him. An excellent book on this subject is called Chosen but Free by Norm Geisler.


    John
     
    #26 evangelist6589, Jul 27, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 27, 2012
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Would say that ho9s death was/is sufficient to save ALl that come to Him to get saved, but that the Elect are those that will come to Him!
     
  8. reformed_baptist

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    Thanks for the response :D

    But do we have the right to pick and choose a version simply because it presents a verse in the way we like best. 'Atoning sacrifice' is a bad translation of ἱλασμός which means to appease or propiatiate. However even taking the NIV rendering you still have the same issue. Has the sacrifice atoned for the sin of all men or not? If it has why do some go to hell? You still end up at universalism my friend unless you redefine the meaning of words, and make 'atoning sacrifice' to mean 'potentially atoning sacrfice'

    And here we see you using an idiom, just like the biblical writers did - do you really just mean man, or man, women and child? Now if you can speak idomatically why couldn't the biblical writers?

    Now a few things to notice to here are that the text clearly distinguishes between two groups, one that are merely saved, and one that are especially saved by faith - onbavioulsy this last group is Christains, but who are the first group and how are they saved?

    Notice that for both groups the saviour is presented as accomplishing the work the only conclusion nwe can draw is that there is a differnce between the way God is the saviour of those who believe and those who do not

    Perhaps we aught to notice also that this verse is not speaking specifically of the Lord Jesus Christ, but of God who is saving people every second of every day by simply giving them their next breath to breathe, but he also especially saving those who believe.

    So now this verse does not say Jesus died for everyone.

    So we have a God who accomplishes all that he pleases, ps 115:3, ps 135:6 and yet he would have all people everywhere who have ever lived to be saved as you present this verse - yet clearly every person to ever live is not saved? So which is it?

    Or do we do some real exegesis and notice that more then then not when the bible says 'all' or 'all men' it refers to all with in a specific group and not everyone who will ever live, eg Luke 6:26.

    Now if you take v4 to mean everyone who ever lived to be consistant you must also take v6 to mean the same - and again you end up at universalism. If however you understand 'all men' in reference to the earlier verses where Paul says we should pray for 'all men' for kings etc, you see that he using the term in relation to all kinds of men, in a similar way to how Jesus does in John 12:32

    Who is the everyone in context? All people who have ever lived, or the 'we' that the writer keeps addressing?

    Not a reference to all men but clearly to a specific group so without getting into the emaning of 'bought' in context I see no need to examine the text further. So far the texts you have presented either do not speak directly of the atonement of christ as a propitation for sin, or the 'all' to which there erefr must be understood in a more narrow way then 'all people everywhere who will ever live' because if you take it to mean that you are saying Jesus christ has achieved their salvation - ie universalism - that is the only consistant conclusion that can be drawn.

    Agreed, which is why my interpretations stand because I understand everyword said within it's full semantic range but every time we read words like reddemed, saved, ransomed etc you have to insert a sense of mere potentiality that makes the work of Christ depenedent upon our believing if it is to be effective.

    No, we stop those opposed to our views from decontextualising a verse and looking at it in isoltaion. All you have to do in 2 Pet 3:9 is trace the pronoun through.

    In 3:1 he makes it clear who he is addressing, "I now write to you." he does the same in v2, in v8 it becomes more definite,
    2 Peter 3:8 But, beloved, so he is addressing christains when he says;

    2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

    The promise he is refering to is a promise made to christains not to everyone and the longsuffering is shown towards christians so that not of the christains will perish. Again the 'all' is refering to all within a specific group.

    As for a 16th century system - well a little more church history reading will show you that the early church was largely monergistic, and that synergsitic systems were repeatedly rejected and only found acceptence in the church of Rome. Indeed the 16th and 17th century rejections of monergistic soteriology were nothing but a retrun to the teachings of the council of Trent depending up prevenient grace (which is nowheer to found int he word of God) to make their systems works.

    Did he? Then why are they not saved if he has died in their place?

    Yes he does, because he has foreknown them. By the way foreknow must mean more then just know before hand on three simple counts;

    1) God knows everything - so it is meaningless to say to say he foreknows some whom he will call, justify and glorify Rom 8:29-30

    2) The bible teaches that God foreknows people and not just what they will do. Like Adaming knowing eve this must be something deeper then simply knowldge.

    3) The bible uses foreknowledge and determined purpose in relation to God's actions synonoumsly for emphasis - eg Acts 2:23

    Thanks, I ahve read it, and I have read the response to it by J White, the 'potters freedom' as well. I am sad to say that whilst I find Norm to be helpful on many subjects on this one he seesm blinded by tradition and he does not fairly represent the reformed position especially in regards to the will of man. It also seems to me that Norm merely assumes a view on free will and never proves it from scripture - it all seems philosphical to me.
     
  9. 12strings

    12strings Active Member

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    Considering what Human death is, (body dies, spirit does not; Living spirit is separated from the body); I think it is not inaccurate to say "God Died on the Cross." Vague and imprecise, yes...incomplete, yes...but not NECESSARILY false.

    Jesus (who was God and man) experienced death (separation of spirit from body) on the cross. His body ceased to have life... His spirit continued to exist separate from his body.

    Is it also inacurate to say ANYONE died on the cross? Must we always specify that only their body Died?

    What if we put it this way. God's body died on the cross?
     
  10. Zaac

    Zaac Well-Known Member

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    :applause::applause: I like this. Hallelujah. Pray for him as well as the families.
     
  11. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Reformed will always try and fit the Bible into their system and it is very difficult to reason with them. I suggest you read the book "Chosen but Free by Norm Geisler" and he will explain what I am talking about in more detail. But I will close with this comment.

    John 3:16
    For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

    The whoever is anyone that responds to the invitation. Obviously only the elect will reply, but the call is for all of mankind. For more details and more depth you need to buy Chosen but Free and refute the arguments here.


    John



     
  12. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    I missed this comment. I have also read The Potters Freedom, and while I think White did a better job at writing, I think Norm clearly is more Biblical. Check out a review I wrote ages ago.

     
  13. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Thank you!!
     
  14. reformed_baptist

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    Ah...so I have taken the time to explain and contextualise every verse you have posted and you have not intercated with the vast majority of what I have said but I am the one who is hard to reason with :D

    I think you will find that I have read it my freind :D


    But I will close with this comment.

    John 3:16
    For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

    The whoever is anyone that responds to the invitation. Obviously only the elect will reply, but the call is for all of mankind.[/quote]

    Is it? Based on what exegesis? need I remind you that 'whosever' is a really poor translation of the belief is a present active particple which means those who go one believing will be saved through the gift God sent into the world, the verse does not speak of who the gift is for, it does not speak of the origin of this onging faith - the verse says nothing towards either monergistic regeneration of synergistic!

    Already got it :D

    But why won't you talk you these verse through with me?
     
  15. reformed_baptist

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    Well I think White was more Biblical the reality of this difference of opinions is our respective theologies I am sure :D
     
  16. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    Thats right and you know I am right on this one
     
  17. freeatlast

    freeatlast New Member

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    James Holmes has already heard the truth and he has also been prayed for by many people around this nation and the world. it is now up to him to receive the truth or continue to reject it. Hopefully he will become a brother in Christ before it is too late.
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I think the main reason why it does not bother arminian holding bethren the question of the limit of the atonment is that many of them would hold to a non penal substitutionary view on the Cross, and mor emaybe like a moral influence, government type!

    So in that view, Jesus did NOT really die in the place of us, but to 'show us the way!"
     
  19. Alive in Christ

    Alive in Christ New Member

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    And the married men, too! :laugh:
     
  20. evangelist6589

    evangelist6589 Well-Known Member
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    This is a lie. For one I am not Arminian I am Dispensationalist. For two Jesus did die in the place of us. Jesus is fully God and died for the sins of mankind.

    John Calvin himself did not fully believe in Limited Atonement

    Romans 5:6-You see, at just the right time, when we were still powerless, Christ died for the ungodly.

    The text is clear in this chapter. Christ died for the sins of all mankind. The elect will respond, and the non elect will not.

     
    #40 evangelist6589, Jul 28, 2012
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