Featured God's dealing with His Son on the cross

Actually, I am the one arguing that Christ's death...alone...was the finished work of Christ.

That opposed to that which would be added by those who ignore His statement "...it is finished."

The question I asked made about as much sense as yours:

Nothing he said warranted this question.

Further, His manhood did not negate His Deity, but rather...veiled it.

Hence my question, and I will pose it again...

...do you deny Christ in His manhood was God?

It would take that for your question to take on a semblance of relevance.


God bless.

 

So from which of these do you justify your position that "God poured out His wrath upon the Son?"


God bless.

 

Is it possible that, the wrath of God was poured out on his Son through, the death, the Son shedding his blood and according to mercy and for the grace of God, the Father raised his Son from the death; Thereby the regenerated Son became the righteousness of God, apart from the law.

It was the belief (faith) of the Father that the Son would be obedient unto the death (shedding his blood) thereby the Father, had placed before, the Son, propitiation (the place of mercy from wrath).

After all it is stated that even though Jesus was Son, he learned obedience through sufferings. Heb 5:8 It is stated, he became obedient unto death. Phil 2:8

It was the belief of the Father that the Son born of woman would do so and thereby had made the Son, propitiation, from the wrath of God.

I actually believe the Son took the wrath of the Father upon himself and became the appeasement for the wrath, rather than the Father pouring out his wrath upon the Son. If anything the wrath was poured upon him by having him born of woman, born under the law.

 

Did Christ death alone save them He died for?

 

Joh 20:30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
Joh 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

 

Answer the question ! Did Christ's Death alone save all for whom He died ? If you say no, then you are saying His Death was not efficacious in and of itself, which is Blasphemy, so answer the question please !

 

My position:
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.
1Jn 5:13 These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.

Your position:
1Jn 5:10 he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son.

1Jn 5:11 And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.

The record:
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

 

I see you are scared to answer the question, you should be, because it exposes your unbelief, unbelief in the fact that you dont believe Christ's Death alone saved them He died for !

 

Christ's death was sufficient to save all men for all generations.
It is efficacious only to them that believe.
This is the biblical teaching and the teaching expressed in that well known scripture of John 3:16.

 

Folks, see how this man is scared to answer the question ? All he is doing is making invalid comments not supported by scripture !

Christ's death was efficacious towards unbelievers, because it reconciled them to God while being enemies Rom 5:10 !