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Hints to Bible Interpretation by R. Young

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Jesus is Lord, Aug 28, 2003.

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  1. Jesus is Lord

    Jesus is Lord New Member

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    I have a question concerning a statement Dr. Robert Young made in his out-of-print book "Hints to Bible Interpretation"

    "in the original Hebrew, the verb is in the permissive rather than the causative sense. Actually, it should have been translated something like this: "The Lord will allow you to be smitten... The Lord will allow these plagues to be brought upon you . . . "

    He wrote that a hebrew verb could be translated in a "causative" form ("God did it") and in a "permissive" form (God allowed it).

    Is that the case? Or is it just a theory?
     
    #1 Jesus is Lord, Aug 28, 2003
  2. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    It would help to know what verse you are talking about. I don't have the book you are talking about.

    All words in Hebrew stem from verbs. Nouns stem form verbs. For each verb there are basically 7 tenses. Some are passive and some are active. What you stated earlier does actually exist in Hebrew.
     
    #2 gb93433, Aug 28, 2003
  3. Jesus is Lord

    Jesus is Lord New Member

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    And said, If thou wilt diligently hearken to the voice of the LORD thy God, and wilt do that which is right in his sight, and wilt give ear to his commandments, and keep all his statutes, I will put none of these diseases upon thee, which I have brought upon the Egyptians: for I am the LORD that healeth thee. Exodus 15:26

    Robert Young says that it should be "I will allow (or permit) these desease to come upon you" and "...which I allowed upon the Egyptians"
    As I said, Young says that there is a verb forn which is permissive but always translated causative in English Bibles.

    You wrote that this is possible. Do you have more information on these "causative" and "permissive" forms?
     
    #3 Jesus is Lord, Aug 29, 2003
  4. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    The word for ‘”I will put” none of these diseases upon thee, which I have brought upon the Egyptians:’is the imperfect tense. In Hebrew the imperfect verb denotes action that is incomplete. It is an action that is still continuing. It is most often translated in the future tense in English.

    For example in Exodus 3:14, “God said to Moses, " I am who I am"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ` I am has sent me to you.' " In that verse I am is in the imperfect tense. It means that God is with Moses and will continue to be with Moses. It is an incomplete action. Therefore it is not punctiliar. A better translation wouild be I will be who I will be. It comes fromt he Hebrew verb to be.

    I don’t know that there is anything different about the form, other than that Hebrew has different tenses in the same verbwhich would have diferent forms of the verb. There is the qal. niphal, piel, pual, hiphil, hophal, hithpael and a few others.

    qal denots simple action in the actrive voice
    niphal is simple action in the passive voice
    piel is intensive action in the active voice
    pual is intensive action in the passive voice
    hiphil is causative action in the active voice
    hophal is causative action in the passive voice
    hithpael is intensive, causative, reflexive, action.


    In Exodus 15:26, “I will put” is in the qal imperfect. I believe it is a jussive use of the verb.


    About permissive and potential action:

    16.2 Cohortative

    a. The cohortative occurs only in the first person (singular or plural) of the imperfect.

    b. It is fromed by attaching a qames hay to the end of the verb.

    c. The cohortative usually connotes the idea of either potential or permissive action.

    16.3 Jussive

    A. The jussive usually occurs in the third person (singular or plural) of the imperfect, although it is occasionally found in the first or second persons of the subject.

    B. The form is usually the same as the normal imperfect and may be identified by the context in which it is used.

    C. The jussive usually connotes the ideas of potential or permissive action.

    From HEBREW NOTES page 14 by Bob R. Ellis and Harry B. Hunt


    In Exodus 15:26 it does not have a qames hay added to the end therefore it must be a jussive.

    I think Young is right.

    Hope this helps.
     
    #4 gb93433, Aug 29, 2003
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