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How has it affected you?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Terry_Herrington, Apr 25, 2003.

  1. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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  2. Alcott

    Alcott Well-Known Member
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    Non sequitur. Neither of these conclusions are accurate. </font>[/QUOTE]Neither of these were "conclusions." They made up a binary question. And I think it can be ascertained within the 99% confidence interval that your answer is 'No-- did not learn Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek scriptures before compared English translations thereof.'

    The church which made up the basis of your learning scripture went from KJV-preferred to KJV-only. That shows your learning took place with a bias in favor of the KJV to begin with.

    Same as above. So, if we are to consider conslusions, here it is that you have always-- at least since you began learning scripture-- heard, read, memorized and studied from a pro-KJV bias. So are you absolutely objective? Very doubtful.
     
  3. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    Who here on the Baptist Board did?

    My objectivity (or lack thereof) comes not from what I did or do with the KJV, but from what I know about the KJV after many years of study.
     
  4. Terry_Herrington

    Terry_Herrington New Member

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    Pastor Bob,
    The thread you referred to is not in agreement with your doctrinal statement on your church website. Which one, if either, is correct?
     
  5. Alcott

    Alcott Well-Known Member
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    'Many years of study' that the KJV is the much-preferred, or exclusive, English Bible-- right?

    In the meantime, as we grow older we learn a lot about our families, our communities, our 'alma maters,' et al; and unless our minds are like computers it does matter, as far as our ability to see them objectively, 'what we do or did with them,' no matter what we know about them.
     
  6. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    They are most certainly in agreement.
    We believe the Bible to be the:
    1. inspired Word of God - 2 Tim 3:16
    2. only infallible Word of God - Ps 12:6, Pro 30:5
    3. authoritative Word of God - John 17:17

    4. and that He has preserved it - Mat 24:35

    5. for the English speaking people in the Authorized King James Version - Mat 4:4

    My position is that the KJV is the most accurate, most reliable English version and that God has providentially preserved His Word through the traditional Received Text. This is the text that has been used by virtually all Bible-believing churches from the second century to the present. The KJV is the offspring of this text. In other langauges He has preserved it in other forms.
     
  7. Terry_Herrington

    Terry_Herrington New Member

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    Pastor Bob,
    Say what you want, these two statements are not in agreement.

    Let me put it this way. You say that the KJV is the, "only infallible Word of God." Then you say, "the KJV is the most accurate, most reliable English version. Which is it? Is the KJV to ONLY infallible Word of God or is it the MOST RELIABLE English version?
     
  8. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    Please go back and read the statement. It says the Bible is the inspired, only infallible Word of God. I believe that the Bible alone is the Word of God. Not the Koran, not the Apocrypha, not the Works of Josephus, or any other writings.

    You can split hairs here if you wish. I stand by both statements.
     
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