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I Cor 14:1-33

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by mjwegs42, Sep 12, 2004.

  1. mjwegs42

    mjwegs42 New Member

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    Read this scripture I Cor 14:1-33 in the KJV please. Then let me know what you think about my questions. I ask only one thing. When you reply, dont use quotes. Just type #1. #2. #3. ect.... and put your answers after the #'s. This will keep the page count low, and allow for us to just see your response to the question. Not your "vain janglings" (I Tim 1:5-6) and misquotes.

    Ok, I trust you read all the scripture from the KJV as required.

    Question #1.
    This is an application to speaking in tongues. I beleive for example the KJV and the NIV are different tongues. Can or is this an applicable scriptural proof to One-Versionism?

    Question #2.
    "If" my above statement is true? Does vs. 4a not tell us using different tongues (versions) only "edifies himself" (yourself/ourself)?

    Question #3.
    "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 4b & 5 tell us to prophesy (teach?) in one tongue? And then to interpret to the church? And this will edify the Church?

    Question #4.
    "If" my above statement(s) are true? Do vs. 6 tell us that if we speak in tongues (versions) that it will not profit the Church?

    Question #5.
    "If" my above statement(s) are true? Using the end of vs. 6 it tells us "except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?" Vs. 7 compares the pipe and the harp (diff. tongues/version reference) at it tells us we will not be able to know the difference. Does this tell us we will not know the revaltion, knowledge, prophesying or "DOCTRINE" if we speak in tongues?

    Question #6.
    "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 8 tell us again we will not understand the tongues (versions). And more import, we will not be ready for War? Is War a reference to our Spiritual Battle?

    Question #7.
    "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does vs. 9 again tell us not to speak in tongues easy to understand. Is this a refernce to say the NJKV? Is this not a tongue (version) created to be easily understood?

    Question #8.
    I am going to stop at this point. I may pick up vs.10-32 in a later forum. The last question will go to vs. 33. "If" my above statement(s) are true? Does tongues (version) create confusion. I will make one point. A KJV stance does not cause confusion! But speaking in tongues (versions) as stated by this scripture does cause confusion? Can you give a Verse to state otherwise?
     
  2. natters

    natters New Member

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    "Question #1.
    This is an application to speaking in tongues. I beleive for example the KJV and the NIV are different tongues. Can or is this an applicable scriptural proof to One-Versionism?"

    No. I only speak English, I only speak one tongue. I can read and understand both the NIV and the KJV. They are not different tongues.

    "Question #2 - #8.
    "If" my above statement is true?"

    It is not true, thus the answer to #2 through #8 is "not applicable". And even if they were, it would only prove that the KJV should not have been produced or used since they already had a Bible they could use.
     
  3. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    #1. &lt;edited&gt; The passage is clear as to what it is talking about. There is no allergory, other than the KJVO one that you are trying to force onto it.

    #2. You statement is not true, but the very idea is totally laughable.

    #3. Thus far, your entire arguement is built upon a rather ridiculous presupposition. Does it have a point?

    #4. No, it doesn't.

    #5. You need to visit some of the Church of God (Cleveland, TN) churches around my area, then you would understand exactly what Paul was talking about.

    Forget the rest of the points.

    This whole thing is beyond words. But, then, it will probably make perfect sense to our local prophetess of the King James Version Only sect.

    In Christ,
    Trotter

    [ September 12, 2004, 02:41 PM: Message edited by: C4K ]
     
  4. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    You must have been posting your response while I was typing mine, Natters. Too bad I didn't see it first...I could have just said "Amen!"
    Amen, and Amen!

    In Christ,
    Trotter
     
  5. mjwegs42

    mjwegs42 New Member

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    Trotter,

    Here is a verse you need to get familiar with.

    &lt;attack deleted&gt;

    [ September 12, 2004, 02:42 PM: Message edited by: C4K ]
     
  6. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    Mike,

    Just giving you my view. And thanks for the confidence that you have in me!

    Your entire post was based on some KJVO idea, accomplished by twisting the plain and obvious meaning of the entire passage. Paul was speaking on spiritual gifts and their use and exercise in the church, not a man-made myth. And if he did write on it, you can rest assured he would have condemned it rather soundly (Galations comes to mind...).

    I use "In Christ" to reflect my position. I am in Christ, just as He is in me. Surely you have heard of the principle?

    And I have not "bashed" you. Your entire post left me aghast and at a loss for words. After I read the passage from 1 Corinthians, I read your points. Each one built upon the other, each one going a step further into the lies of KJVO. No, I did not "bash" you, brother. I prayed for you, and I prayed for me.

    Try reading the word of God as it is written, instead of trying to make it jump through you King James-ian hoops. You meght get a real surprise when you find out that it doesn't say anything whatsoever about your "pet doctrine".

    In Christ,
    Trotter
     
  7. mjwegs42

    mjwegs42 New Member

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    Trotter,

    O ye of little faith, why reason ye among yourselves, because ye have brought no bread?(Matthew come to mind...). Remember parables?

    My bread is the KJV and I have faith that our God does have a plan. Not just a big mismatch of version, translations and tongues. Faith is very important to God. You hold little faith when all you do is try to disprove his word! What bread do you bring?
     
  8. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    This thread is in serious danger of being shut down before it gets off the ground.

    Lets stop the name calling and accusations, please.

    C4K
    Moderator

    [ September 12, 2004, 03:02 PM: Message edited by: C4K ]
     
  9. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    1. No.

    2. N/A

    3. N/A

    4. N/A

    5. N/A

    6. N/A

    7. N/A

    8. Anyone holding to the theory that the tongues spoken of in 1 Corinthians 14 are various Bible versions should also read Acts 2:1-12 applying the same standard of interpretation. And please do read the passage from the King James Version!

    What???? Oh, KJVO leaders, please say it ain't so! How can other versions come from the Spirit? :confused:

    Oh, no!!!! This just can't be! The "wonderful works of God" in other versions? :confused: Oh, KJVO leaders, please help us to understand!

    If the 1 Corinthians passage applies to various Bible versions, then so must the Acts passage. 'Nuff said... ;)
     
  10. mjwegs42

    mjwegs42 New Member

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    Keith M,

    Typical spin. I've nearly worn the C-O-N-T-E-X and T keys off my keyboard. Comparing Paul's letter to the Corinth church to the Pentecost. Where do you find the corralation? What you must be trying to say is that Paul's preaching against the use of tongues is in direct conflict with Lukes writing about the Holy Ghost's power to use tongues? This would truly conflict Paul's message, thus we should throw out all writing from Pauls as contadictory. Remember the entire reason they spoke tongues in Acts was to fulfill prophecy. So in Acts were talking about Divine intervention, and prophecy fulfillment. In Corinthians were being given rules for the Church. Now do you understand?
     
  11. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Typical spin, huh? Not at all...

    I expect that at any time we will see a new school opening: The KJVO School of Dance!

    On the other hand, maybe I shouldn't say that. It is not your fault that you have been sadly misled. I pray for your enlightenment.
     
  12. mjwegs42

    mjwegs42 New Member

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    Keith,

    False accusations will get you nowhere. I am not KJVO. And when someone proves you wrong as I did above. You should come back and say I'm sorry, I did take that verse out of context. There is a huge difference between the Pentecost and the Corinthian letter. I on the other hand already prayed for your enlightenment. And the Lord delivered.
     
  13. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    This is one of the strangest assertions I've ever heard.

    This passage is talking about speaking in other languages. It has nothing to do with Bible versions.

    Different versions do not create confusion. People in this forum keep saying that, yet at my church, which is fairly large, people use various versions and there is no confusion at all. This morning someone read from the passage for today's message from the NASB. I was reading along in the NKJV (which is from the TR and the NASB is not) and was not confused at all. In SS, we all have various versions and somehow had a fabulous SS lesson on Phil. and Gal. (I'm in 2 SS classes).
     
  14. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    --------------------------------------------------
    Different versions do not create confusion. People in this forum keep saying that, yet at my church, which is fairly large, people use various versions and there is no confusion at all. This morning someone read from the passage for today's message from the NASB. I was reading along in the NKJV (which is from the TR and the NASB is not) and was not confused at all. In SS, we all have various versions and somehow had a fabulous SS lesson on Phil. and Gal. (I'm in 2 SS classes
    --------------------------------------------------


    Well, there was certainly confusion for me, one time when I went to a prophecy revival at my neighbors church, and the mv version used (which many different ones were used for this presentation) differed from what the scriptures said pertaining to Jesus Christ being referred to as the root of Jesse. The reason this pastor used this version, was to prove his assumption that the Israeli flag was quite possibly the sign being spoken of in this passage. WRONG! The only reason I knew he was wrong and mislead, and therefore misleading others, was because I had the true word of God. This passage says:

    Isaiah 11

    10. And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek: and his rest shall be glorious.


    The part that was omitted was that which is in bold.

    This is what can happen when God's word of truth is altered.

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  15. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    "one time when I went to a prophecy revival at my neighbors church"

    That was your mistake. The rest of your message I can't make heads or tails of.
     
  16. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    No confusion? You deny MVs caused the confusion, then you deny 1 Cor. 14:33.
     
  17. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Can confusion happen one time? And if it happens one time, isn't it possible and probable it could or would happen again?


    You cannot make heads or tails of the fact that the version that altered the scripture in this passage caused a false teaching? How this version, and the preacher PREACHED NOT THE TRUTH being spoken of in this verse, to what it was speaking of is OUR LORD AND SAVIOUR JESUS CHRIST? How is this not cause for confusion and error?


    Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  18. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    The only real confusion I have heard about is when non-believers don't see Christians live out their life as real, genuine Christians.
     
  19. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    If different versions cause confusion, I wonder what some of the KJVO would say about the fact that most of the early Christians could not read nor did they have a Bible either?
     
  20. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    So are you suggesting that the MV's on 1 Cor. 14:33 has something to do with confusion? If that is the case then where does that put those in the NT who had available many different Greek translations of the Hebrew OT and 1 Cor 14:33 had not been written by the time Jesus had His disciples. By 1611 The KJV would have added to many othr translations. In 1611 it was truly an MV. Just one more to cause confusion I guess?
     
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