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IF CALVINISM IS TRUE, WHY AREN'T ALL BELIEVERS CALVINISTIC?

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Skandelon, Jul 30, 2004.

  1. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    He was "brought to his senses" in teh pig sty, a reference to the spiritual awakening that caused him to return home. So regeneration, or efficacious enabling by God, enabled him to repent. </font>[/QUOTE]But I think it is clear that even those who are in the pig sty choose, because of pride and hardened hearts, to remain though they know their father will recieve them back. It is for this reason they are held accountable. The son didn't have to return. He chose to return.
     
  2. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    No, Paul is rebuking UNBELIEVING Jews in general, and warning them of the consequences of refusing the Word. Some of his Jewish audience had believed his preaching; so it is to the rest he speaks...

    Yes, I have said this all along. He is speaking in general about all unbelieving Jews. And he clearly tells why the CAN'T believe stating clearly that had they not been hardened they MIGHT HAVE. That is what you have to keep avoiding.

    It is not correct to equate the Jews with the Gentiles when considering God's saving work among them. The Gentiles are naturally blind, like the Jews.

    Scripture? Naturally means "from birth." Even here in this passage it says they "BECOME" hardened and never that they are born as such. It even goes on to say "otherwise they might believe." So they BECOME something that made them unable otherwise they would have been ABLE. Its that simple.

    Yes, but if you hold it does not separate them into believing and unbelieving, then you must hold that Paul said ALL Gentiles would be saved. Manifestly that was not the case.

    Not if Paul is speaking GENERALLY. In summary, Paul says Gentiles have obtained righteousness. Obviously, he is only speaking of Gentiles in general and not each of them individually which proves that this chapter has been about nations in general. The Gentiles being shown mercy and the Jews being hardened. Its funny how you are willing to read the text as it applies to nations when it suits your interpretation, but not when it doesn't. Be consistant.

    As I pointed out above, the Jews were composed of those who did believe Paul's word and those who rejected it. Paul then said he was going to the Gentiles, who would hear/believe. NOT all Gentiles, only the elect.

    Wrong. God clearly calls his followers to go to all creatures and preach the gospel and He never indicates that they are to go to all just because they don't know who the elect are, but instead indicates that they are to go to all so that all may be saved.

    Secondly, there are two conditions being discussed here. Hardened and Unhardened. Those able to see, hear and understand and those who are not. The Jews, before their being hardened, WERE able but now they are not. The Gentiles who have yet to hear are clearly still able, thus they are not hardened in the way that the Jews are.

    You are doing the same thing you say I'm wrong in doing! You say the Gentiles are being ingrafted as a nation - but then you qualify that by saying, only the believing Gentiles. That is my point, Paul is distinguishing between believing Gentiles and unbelieving ones; between believing Jews and unbelieving ones.

    The difference is clear though Ian. You make the dividing line based upon God's choosing to show mercy on some individuals and his choosing to harden other individuals when Paul is clearly not talking about individuals. He is speaking about showing mercy to Gentiles and hardening Jews IN GENERAL.

    I do what Paul does and speak generally throughout the entire passage. God shows mercy to the Gentiles in general just as the Gentiles obtain righteousness through faith in general. And the Jews are being hardened in general just as they have stumbled in general. I'm consistant in my interpretation where as you switch from Paul speaking specifically about elect individuals and non-elect individuals when it is clear he is speaking in general about two nations.

    Did Paul mean that ALL who heard him that day and didn't repent were the hardened? I think that unlikely. The text seems to indicate some disputing among even the unbelievers. What Paul said was a warning to all who refused the word at that time. 'Beware lest this prophecy be found true of you personally.' It certainly was true of the majority of Jews; but might not be true of any individual.

    Well, now we go back to the circle of our debate of Paul warning people about something they have absolutely no control over. :rolleyes:

    John Calvin on Rom.11: 11. 'Have they stumbled, etc. You will be greatly hindered in understanding this argument, except you take notice, that the Apostle speaks sometimes of the whole nation of the Jews, and sometimes of single individuals; for hence arises the diversity, that onewhile he speaks of the Jews as being banished from the kingdom of God, cut off from the tree and precipitated by God’s judgment into destruction, and that at another he denies that they had fallen from grace, but that on the contrary they continued in the possession of the covenant, and had a place in the Church of God.

    But Calvin is not supporting your view that the elect are not hardened. He seems to hold to the view that the hardened may still be elect. At least that is the way I understand him. He seems to be arguing that the hardened Jews are not all reprobates without hope.
    I'm accustom to Calvinists arguing that those hardened may still be elect. You seem to take it another root by trying to maintain the idea that you so called elect ones could have never been "hardened."

    Let me add, some of the difficulty comes from confusing the hardened part of the nation with the nation as such, for sometimes it is referred to in those terms and we are expected to know the difference. So 'blindness in part' refers to the nation; but the individuals concerned make up only part of the nation. Where's the asprin? :(

    I need a asprin trying to keep up with your view too? There is so much switching back and forth from individuals to nations back to individuals it really is difficult. Why not understand it as all speaking in general. God show mercy to the Gentiles who have obtained righteousness through faith and has hardened the Jews in general, except for a remnant who he selected to carry the message of redemption to the world, the rest were hardened temporarily but can be saved if they leave their unbelief. Its really not that difficult.

    I'm not denying the witness of nature and conscience, just its saving ability. The saints you mentioned were SAVED by the gospel, never mind how much or little light they had before. And Abraham especially - he had God's DIRECT communication, not just nature or conscience.

    Where does scripture deny its saving ability? It seems that Paul is trying to prove they have everything they need to acknowledge God as God and therefore are without excuse. If you save its not enough to save then they would have an excuse for not being saved. Right?

    Paul explains this in Romans. The exact same problem exists for the Jew under the Law as for the heathen with nature and consciece only - their evil hearts will not respond toward God, but always against Him.

    Where does it say that they will always respond against him? It says that they are not righteous or that they fall short of God's glory, but it says nothing about an inability to respond in faith toward God's revelation. In fact, Romans 21 seems to show that this righteousness only requires faith, which is possible whereas "works" based salvation was not, nor was it intended to be. Faith has always been the means by which men are justified, whether Jew or Gentile, for God is not partial.

    If an unevangelised man responded with faith and repentance toward God as revealed in nature and conscience, they he would be saved, or at least God would get the gospel to them. It is his evil heart that prevents it. If he is truly able, why is the gospel sent to him? It is because man is unable to do what is right that the gospel must come. It is God's appointed way of salvation. None other.

    I don't disagree. But could it be that God seeks those, like Lydia, who worship Him and send the gospel to them by the effectual calling of his messengers, as he did Jonah? Make sense?

    The degree of light is not the problem or the answer. It is the state of the heart. Men even blasphemed the Holy Spirit when they knew Christ's good works were done through Him. The answer is to be given a new heart. God gives that to His elect in their hearing of the gospel.

    But the state of man's hearts seems to be different depending upon their response to the gospel and not depending upon their being born that way. Notice that the people in Romans 1 BECAME futile in their thinking. It doesn't say they were born like that. These who have allowed their hearts to grow hardened must be broken or softened, which can be accomplished through a number of means that God is not obligated to supply, but He might. I agree some are in need of such means, but you assume that all men are born in such a state, but scripture never teaches that.

    I was born in a Christian home and asking me when I first knew Jesus as Lord is like asking me when I first knew Mary was my mother. I've always known it and believed it to be true. My heart was never hardened to that truth, thank God. Now, don't confuse two issues by talking about sin and guilt. I was born a sinner and in need of a savior. I was guilty and fell short of God's glory, but my heart never grew hardened. It had that potential. I know others who have similiar backgrounds who refused to believe their parents teaching and the more they refused the harder their hearts grew. They fit themselves for destruction just as the Jews of old have done and they will stand without excuse.
     
  3. Southern

    Southern New Member

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    Skan,

    On Acts 13:48: We disagree on who makes up the “as many” in Acts 13:48 but whoever we insert into this phrase has to “believe”. For instance, if you want to say that the “as many” = the differing nations, then to be consistent you would have to say that all the differing nations believed. This is no potential belief but actual belief of actual people in history and not a faceless group.

    I am trying to understand where you are coming from and I seem to see what you are trying to say. But, I see in the context Gentiles being spoken of as a ‘group’ for sure but there is no mention (in the immediate context) of some “sub” group besides the individuals who believed who make up the “as many”. We have the Jews, the Gentiles, and the “as many” who believed ‘out of’ the “grouping” of Gentiles. Your assertion seems to bring in a new group into the text not mentioned. This is why I am having a hard time accepting that interpretation.


    You then mentioned I John 2:2. Let me show you why I am the one that is actually consistent on my interpretation without “having” to go outside of the text in both passages. Let me compare the two verses and show what I am saying. In Acts 13:48 we both agree that there are people who are described as “believing”. This is no potential belief. We just differ on who make up the “as many”. Also, in I John 2:2 we notice something else that a person interpreting this verse without going immediately outside has to agree on just like in Acts 13:48. In I John 2:2, we read that Christ is the “propitiation” for “our” and the “whole world’s” sins. We notice here in this verse, that just like “belief” in Acts 13, the propitiation is actual. This is something the text clearly says. Anything else would be reading into the text as you mentioned. Just like in Acts 13 with “As many”, we differ on who makes up the “us” and the “whole world” here in I John. There are only two possible interpretations to come to given the fact that Christ “is” the propitiation in this verse. This is not a potential propitiation (unless we read into the text). Either you believe that it is speaking of every individual w/o distinction, which would result in universalism or you could interpret it to mean “us” (John speaking as a believing Jew) and the “whole world” (an idea found in John’s writings referring to “not just us Jews”, John 10:50-51; Rev. 5:9). Anyways, all one could be from this one passage is either a Universalist or Particular Redemption. In conclusion, I don’t see how I am inconsistent in reading I John in the way I do. I John speaks of actual propitiation (though we differ on who the whole world is), and Acts 13:48 speaks of people actually believing (though we differ on the As many).

    May God bless you
     
  4. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Ok, lets try a different approach. Lets pretend we are both white bigots back before the Civil Rights movement who have been taught all our lives that anglos are the only chosen race, ok? Now, remember that all the people you respect the most believe and teach that only white anglos are going to be saved and all others are without hope and God hasn't ever provided a means for them to enter covenant with him or receive eternal life. One day you get blinded on a road and are told by God that your wrong and that He has actually chosen all people for salvation and not just anglo people. So, you go out and start telling people the truth but all the people you have grown up with think you're a heretic and they want you dead. You spend most of you time trying to convince your anglo friends that black, hispanics, and every other nationality has been chosen by God. You become known as the apostle to non-anglos and start perdominately non-anglo churches all over your state while being persecuted for it all along the way. This is Paul's world. Keep that in mind when reading certain passages such as Thess. 2:14 where Paul thanks God for choosing them etc. It takes on a whole new meaning, doesn't it?

    Now, go to Acts 13 again and read the entire passage with this context in mind. As an apostle to the non-anglos you have just been told that the non-anglos aren't worthy of eternal life by anglos who don't believe your message. You respond to them saying, "Then Ian grew bold and said, "It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you anglos first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the non-anglos. 47 For so the Lord has commanded us:
    'I have set you as a light to the those who are not anglo,
    That you should be for salvation to the ends of the earth.'"*
    48 Now when the non-anglos heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed."


    Now, don't you see how that verse would be so far out of place with your interpretation? I'm not saying it's not possible, but it doesn't fit the rest of the context. It seems to be saying that all people who had been appointed to eternal life, regardless of their skin color, were proving it by their faith. So, even if individuals are in view here they are in view as representatives of being non-anglos who are proving the anglos wrong by the fact they are believing and the anglos are not. Does that make it more clear or did I just confuse the issue more?

    I disagree. I think propitiation could be made available to all but only applicable to those who recieve it. The priest in the OT days offered the sacrifice for all the people, though not all the people repented. Christ could appease the wrath of God for all sin, but men who refuse such provisions could be judged based upon their response to God's provision made known in his word. John 12 seems to indicate that men are indeed judged by their response to Christ's words. Had Christ never came then men would have stood condemned for their sin nature alone without hope, but because of Christ's work, men have a choice. His work gave men that choice.
     
  5. Ian Major

    Ian Major New Member

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    Skandelon said
    I'm consistant in my interpretation where as you switch from Paul speaking specifically about elect individuals and non-elect individuals when it is clear he is speaking in general about two nations.

    Skan, I don't have time or inclination to go around in circles over ground we have covered many times. So I'm going to focus on a few points only.

    This 'two nations' term you use, it is utterly mistaken. God NEVER speaks of the Gentiles as a nation. The Gentiles are the nations, plural.

    However, it does help clarify to whom Paul refers in Acts 28 if we check out the references to what nation is revealed as being chosen of God. You will find:
    1. Israel. The physical nation was chosen by God as the vehicle for bringing the Saviour, and the base of His saving work. In N.T. times, the gospel is brought by Israelites to the Gentiles also. Additionally, though now only surviving as a remnant before Him, God is going to one day bring the whole nation to faith again.

    2. The Church. This is the body of believers of Israel, with believing Gentiles added, that are called a holy nation, 1 Peter 2: 9But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; 10who once were not a people but are now the people of God, who had not obtained mercy but now have obtained mercy. They are the nation to whom the kingdom of God has been delivered, Matt.21: 43"Therefore I say to you, the kingdom of God will be taken from you and given to a nation bearing the fruits of it. None of these references apply to the Gentile nations, only to the Church.

    But Calvin is not supporting your view that the elect are not hardened. He seems to hold to the view that the hardened may still be elect. At least that is the way I understand him. He seems to be arguing that the hardened Jews are not all reprobates without hope.

    You mustn't have read the whole quote. Here is the relevant part: ' They then, who perversely stumbled at Christ, fell and fell into destruction; yet the nation itself had not fallen, so that he who is a Jew must necessarily perish or be alienated from God.' The hardened fell, fell into destruction. But not all the nation are hardened, some are merely unbelievers.

    I need a asprin trying to keep up with your view too? There is so much switching back and forth from individuals to nations back to individuals it really is difficult. Why not understand it as all speaking in general. God show mercy to the Gentiles who have obtained righteousness through faith and has hardened the Jews in general, except for a remnant who he selected to carry the message of redemption to the world, the rest were hardened temporarily but can be saved if they leave their unbelief. Its really not that difficult.

    But YOU can't even do as you say - you dare not write 'God shows mercy to the Gentiles', so you correctly separate believing Gentile from the unbelieving Gentile when you write, 'God show mercy to the Gentiles who have obtained righteousness through faith'. Yes, it is necessary to switch back and forth, for Paul does.

    Where does scripture deny its saving ability? It seems that Paul is trying to prove they have everything they need to acknowledge God as God and therefore are without excuse. If you save its not enough to save then they would have an excuse for not being saved. Right?

    What need of the gospel, if nature's light is enough to save? Why all the blood and tears of God's saints as they laid down their lives for the gospel? So, NO, nature's light is not enough to save - but it is enough to make men guilty for not worshipping the God whom it reveals. Just like the Law, it is not enough to save, but certainly enough to condemn for not keepnig it.


    Where does it say that they will always respond against him? It says that they are not righteous or that they fall short of God's glory, but it says nothing about an inability to respond in faith toward God's revelation. In fact, Romans 21 seems to show that this righteousness only requires faith, which is possible whereas "works" based salvation was not, nor was it intended to be. Faith has always been the means by which men are justified, whether Jew or Gentile, for God is not partial.

    As you rightly say, Scripture says ALL have sinned and fall short of God's glory. But then you claim any of these sinners, ignorant of the gospel, can still be saved by exercising 'faith' in God as He is revealed in nature. One problem, Paul goes on to say in Rom.3:11, ... there is none who seeks after God. NONE, not even one of all who have read God's witness in nature. Amazing, if they had the ability to do so.

    A second fatal flaw in your 'faith without the gospel' argument is how Paul describes the Gentiles, Eph.2: 12that at that time you were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world. NO HOPE - hardly those who could be saved if only they looked up and believed in the God revealed in creation.

    I don't disagree. But could it be that God seeks those, like Lydia, who worship Him and send the gospel to them by the effectual calling of his messengers, as he did Jonah? Make sense?

    No, it doesn't make sense. Jonah preached to the heathen, then they believed. NOT, they believed and then Jonah preached to them. As for Lydia, we are told only that she worshipped God. Her connection to the God of Israel though the Jews seems certain, Acts 16: 13And on the Sabbath day we went out of the city to the riverside, where prayer was customarily made; and we sat down and spoke to the women who met there. 14Now a certain woman named Lydia heard us. She was a seller of purple from the city of Thyatira, who worshiped God. The Lord opened her heart to heed the things spoken by Paul. On the Sabbath, where prayer was customarily made; God-fearing adherents of the God of Israel at least.

    But the state of man's hearts seems to be different depending upon their response to the gospel and not depending upon their being born that way. Notice that the people in Romans 1 BECAME futile in their thinking. It doesn't say they were born like that. These who have allowed their hearts to grow hardened must be broken or softened, which can be accomplished through a number of means that God is not obligated to supply, but He might. I agree some are in need of such means, but you assume that all men are born in such a state, but scripture never teaches that.

    Salvation is always by God sovereignly changing our hearts. The New Covenant of Jer.31 is all about that. If some have unhardened hearts, then the NC would not be needed for them. The 'righteous need no physician'. But the Scripture picture of man's heart is altogether different from the free-will, able-to-believe heart.

    You say Scripture never teaches men are born with evil hearts. You before have passed off all the verses about going astray from the womb as merely teaching original sin. But original sin and the FACT that we ALL sin is plain evidence of the state of the human heart. If we are not born with evil hearts, if our hearts are able to repent and believe without first being changed, then surely millions of unevangelised would be in heaven without the gospel. O, you believe that! So this argument won't hold any weight with you.

    HERE IS A WARNING TO ARMINIANS AND ALL FREE-WILLERS: LOOK WHERE YOUR DOCTRINE LEADS YOU - SALVATION WITHOUT THE GOSPEL.


    Yes, hard hearts can be made harder by our repeated sin, but that does not mean we can soften them by ourselves. It requires God to change them completely, from stoney to flesh.

    I was born in a Christian home and asking me when I first knew Jesus as Lord is like asking me when I first knew Mary was my mother. I've always known it and believed it to be true. My heart was never hardened to that truth, thank God. Now, don't confuse two issues by talking about sin and guilt. I was born a sinner and in need of a savior. I was guilty and fell short of God's glory, but my heart never grew hardened. It had that potential. I know others who have similiar backgrounds who refused to believe their parents teaching and the more they refused the harder their hearts grew. They fit themselves for destruction just as the Jews of old have done and they will stand without excuse.

    You confuse the natural state of your heart with a further hardening that occurs when we reject the gospel repeatedly. You don't remember being hostile to God - but what caused you to have that softness in your heart? Just nature - or did God work on you from you earliest days? What caused you to differ from your friends who rejected the gospel? Natural inclination? Or God's operation on you?

    In Him

    Ian
     
  6. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Yes, obviously from our discussion on Acts you know I understand that. I just mean that Paul is speaking of two groups: One the nation of Israel and the other the Gentiles or non-Jews. This changes nothing.

    No Paul doesn't, he just says, "Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness of faith." Romans 9:30 By your reasoning you would think that Paul means ALL Gentiles have attained righteousness simply because he doesn't qualify the word "Gentiles." He is clearly speaking in general about the group. I guess you could say he is sterotyping, like when people say, "White men can't jump." I know a few white guys who get up! But for the most part we could agree that white dudes can't jump like others might be able to. Its really not that difficult to understand Paul's meaning. The Gentiles, in general, are attaining righteousness while the Jews, in general, are stumbling. They are not stumbling beyond recovering, because those stumbling may be provoked to envy and be saved. What is so difficult about that?
     
  7. Ian Major

    Ian Major New Member

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    Skandelon said
    The Gentiles, in general, are attaining righteousness while the Jews, in general, are stumbling.

    This is where your generalization theory breaks down. To be valid, a general comment must apply to most of a group - as in the case of 'white men can't jump'. But it is not true that most Gentiles are attaining righteousness - quite the reverse.

    In Him

    Ian
     
  8. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    But at that time and from Paul's perspective (especially speaking comparitively) it is true. Ian, he has to be speaking in general about the group or you have to add in a qualifier that Paul doesn't add.

    In general the Gentiles were believing and in general the Jews were stumbling. Do you disagree with that?
     
  9. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Before you answer you might consider these verses:

    Ac 14:27 -
    Now when they had come and gathered the church together, they reported all that God had done with them, and that He had opened the door of faith to the Gentiles.

    Ro 9:30 -
    What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness of faith;

    Ac 15:7 -
    And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: "Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.

    Ac 28:28 -
    "Therefore let it be known to you that the salvation of God has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will hear it!"

    2Ti 4:17 -
    But the Lord stood with me and strengthened me, so that the message might be preached fully through me, and that all the Gentiles might hear. (how many?)

    Ga 3:8 -
    And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel to Abraham beforehand, saying, "In you all the nations shall be blessed."

    Ga 3:14 -
    that the blessing of Abraham might come upon the Gentiles in Christ Jesus, that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.

    Mt 12:18 -
    "Behold! My Servant whom I have chosen, My Beloved in whom My soul is well pleased! I will put My Spirit upon Him, And He will declare justice to the Gentiles.

    Mt 12:21 - Show Context
    And in His name Gentiles will trust."

    Ac 11:18 -
    When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, "Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life."

    Ac 13:46 -
    Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, "It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles.


    Ac 18:6 -
    But when they opposed him and blasphemed, he shook his garments and said to them, "Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean. From now on I will go to the Gentiles."

    Ac 26:20 -
    but declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance.

    Ac 28:28 -
    "Therefore let it be known to you that the salvation of God has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will hear it!"


    Ro 3:29 -
    Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also,

    Ro 11:11 -
    I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles.
    Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness!
    For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

    Notice this last passage, which is clearly speaking about these two groups in general. The "rest" of the Jews who were not apart of the firstfruits (the remnant) those who in general had stumbled had not stumbled beyond recovery, they still could be saved and the hardening of the Jews has allowed for salvation to come to the Gentiles. Why doen't it say that the hardening of the non-elect Jews has allowed for salvation to come to the elect Gentiles? It doesn't make any sense from your perspective.

    The truth of the matter is that we both qualify the word Gentiles with the understanding that its only those who believe that will benefit, but it doesn't change the fact that he speaks about them all as a group which connotes the idea that it IS possible for whosoever. Statements like "The door of salvation has been open to the Gentiles" and "all the Gentiles shall hear," certainly supports the idea that any one of those who are among the Gentiles have the opportunity to be saved. To suggest otherwise goes against the clear meaning of these texts.
    ___________________________

    Edited only to correct an unfortunate spelling error. Lasrry

    [ August 18, 2004, 06:34 PM: Message edited by: Pastor Larry ]
     
  10. Ian Major

    Ian Major New Member

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    Skandelon said
    In general the Gentiles were believing and in general the Jews were stumbling. Do you disagree with that?

    Yes, I disagree with that. Not even in Paul's day were the Gentiles in general believing. The church was, and always has been, a small minority in the world. They are the 'little flock'. They are the 'few' who are saved. That is, few in comparison with the many who remain on the broad road until they are destroyed. The 'few' are a great number, but always still small in comparison with the lost.

    Before you answer you might consider these verses:

    None of them say the Gentiles in general are believing. Salvation has come to the Gentiles - the opportunity to be saved, that was not there previously. But they were and are not generally believing.

    The truth of the matter is that we both qualify the word Gentiles with the understanding that its only those who believe that will benefit, but it doesn't change the fact that he speaks about them all as a group which connotes the idea that it IS possible for whosoever. Statements like "The door of salvation has been open to the Gentiles" and "all the Gentiles shall hear," certainly supports the idea that any one of those who are among the Gentiles have the opportunity to be saved. To suggest otherwise goes against the clear meaning of these texts.

    The call of the gospel goes to all without disctinction. All may hear. But that does not prove that none of the Gentiles are Totally Depraved (and so unable of themselves to believe). It only proves they now have the opportunity to repent. Their response will be determined by the state of their hearts.

    In Him

    Ian
     
  11. Ian Major

    Ian Major New Member

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    Dear Skan and all.

    I'm sorry I must break off for a while. May our Heavenly Father guide you all by His Spirit into more and more truth. I hope to meet up with you in the not too distant future.

    In Him

    Ian
     
  12. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Blessings to you. I'm taking a break for a while myself.

    If I don't see you here, I'll see you there!

    Its been fun. [​IMG]
     
  13. Primitive Baptist

    Primitive Baptist New Member

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    The question was:

    IF CALVINISM IS TRUE, WHY AREN'T ALL BELIEVERS CALVINISTIC.

    To that question I reply:

    All BELIEVERS are Calvinistic.
     
  14. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    [​IMG] [​IMG]

    Even if they don't know it? ;)
     
  15. Primitive Baptist

    Primitive Baptist New Member

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    No...I meant to imply that only those who are Calvinistic are true believers. :eek:
     
  16. Primitive Baptist

    Primitive Baptist New Member

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    Just kidding, though. [​IMG]
     
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