Interpreting 2 Peter 2:1 "Denying the Lord that bought them"

There is no Calvinist debate.

Denying Adamic sin is evidence of Adamic sin.

Adam preceded Calvin by a number of years.

Evidence of Adamic sin is the premise of the phase:

even denying the Lord that bought them;


...

Being Purchased and "bought" by Jesus Christ is not intended;

even denying the Lord that bought them;

not the Lord Jesus Christ bought them,

but God the Father "bought" them;
in the sence of the word, "bought", shown, below:

(... for the word (kuriov) is not here used, which always is where Christ is spoken of as the Lord, but (despothv);

... and which is expressive of the power which masters have over their servants {i}, and which God has over all mankind

and wherever this word (despothv) is elsewhere used, it is spoken of God the Father, whenever applied to a divine person,

as in ( Luke 2:29 ) ( Acts 4:24 ) ( 2 Timothy 2:21 ) ( Revelation 6:10 ) and especially this appears to be the sense, from the parallel text in ( Jude 1:4 )

where the Lord God denied by those men is manifestly distinguished from our Lord Jesus Christ, and by whom these persons are said to be bought:

...the meaning is not that they were redeemed by the blood of Christ,
for Christ is not intended;

...and besides, whenever redemption by Christ is spoken of, the price is usually mentioned, or some circumstance or another which fully determines the sense; see ( Acts 20:28 ) ( 1 Corinthians 6:20 ) ( 7:23 ) ( Ephesians 1:7 ) ( 1 Peter 1:18 1 Peter 1:19 ) ( Revelation 5:9 )

....whereas here is not the least hint of anything of this kind: add to this, that such who are redeemed by Christ are the elect of God only, the people of Christ, his sheep and friends, and church, and who are never left to deny him so as to perish eternally;

... for could such be lost, or deceive, or be deceived finally and totally by damnable heresies, and bring on themselves swift destruction, Christ's purchase would be in vain, and the ransom price be paid for nought;

...

The Divine Interpretation
of the word, "bought", in 2 Peter 2:1;

....but the word "bought" regards temporal mercies and deliverance, which these men enjoyed, and is used as an aggravation of their sin in denying the Lord;

...both by words, (Evidence of UNSAVED Adamic sin is the premise of the phase) delivering out such tenets as are derogatory to the glory of the divine perfections, and which deny one or other of them, and of his purposes, providence, promises, and truths;

... and by works, (Evidence of UNSAVED Adamic sin is the premise of the phase) turning the doctrine of the grace of God into lasciviousness, being disobedient and reprobate to every good work;

... that they should act this part
against the Lord who had made them, and upheld them in their beings
and took care of them in his providence,
and had followed them with goodness and mercy all the days of their lives;

...

The Divine Old Testament Teaching:

...just as Moses aggravates the ingratitude of the Jews in ( Deuteronomy 32:6 ) from whence this phrase is borrowed, and to which it manifestly refers: "do ye thus requite the Lord, O foolish people and unwise! is not he thy Father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?" nor is this the only place the apostle refers to in this chapter, see ( 2 Peter 2:12 2 Peter 2:13 ) compared with ( Deuteronomy 32:5 )

and it is to be observed, that the persons he writes to were Jews,

who were called the people the Lord had redeemed and purchased, (GENERALLY SPEAKING,
as compared to most all Hethendom, etc.)

( Exodus 15:13 Exodus 15:16 ) and so were the first false teachers that rose up among them;

and therefore this phrase is very applicable to them: adapted from: 2 Peter 2:1 - Commentary & Verse Meaning - Bible

 

Thanks for the excellent question. It is widely held that bought and purchased and ransomed means suffered for the specific sins of each and every person who ever lived. Utterly false.

By way of illustration, consider a very wealthy oil baron, who purchases an "oil lease" on a vast area. He has "bought" all the oil He decided to extract for the area. He has also "bought" all the oil for whatever reason he decided to leave in the ground.

Think of the "oil lease" as the New Covenant in His Blood. Whether a person was under the Old Covenant or without the Law, they were "bought" by the blood of the Lamb. Every sinner, from Adam to the end of time, was purchased, but some as in our verse, are still headed for destruction. Anyone and everyone God places in Christ undergoes the washing of regeneration, where their sin burden, what God holds against them, is removed.

In the illustration, the decision to extract illustrates the decision to redeem based on crediting the persons faith as righteousness, 2 Thessalonians 2:13. Spiritual redemption occurs when God transfers the person out of the realm of darkness into the kingdom of His Son. Only then is the person's sin burden removed.

 

I see I missed addressing one of the OP questions, what is the meaning of "denying the Master who bought them?" First because of the "bought" the "Master" refers to Jesus incarnate (1 Cor 6:20, 1 Cor 7:23, Jude 1:4). And I did address the meaning of bought. So the meaning of denying is all I think is left. Broadly speaking, anyone who rejects the gospel is "denying" the Master. However, the context here point to a further denial, i.e. speaking against the true gospel by muddying the waters with bogus views.