Is God never the author of confusion?

my bad - double post!

 

Here is what Strong's says:

G2585
καπηλεύω
kapēleuō
kap-ale-yoo'-o
From κάπηλος kapēlos (a huckster); to retail, that is,
(by implication) to adulterate (figuratively): - corrupt.

Recall that Strong's nearly always ends up with the KJVs reading
last (unless it comes earler).

 

So if the root means something, then how can you say it's a "Wild claim" for the word to mean something closely related to the root?

If you twist your logic any further, it might break.

 

Amen, Jim! Preach it! I agree with you.

 

Amen!!! Amen!!!! :thumbs:

 

why are we defining a 1611 book with an 1828 dictionary? Isn't that inconsistent for a KJVO proponent to do?

 

The OED doesn't support the claim Ed sugggested however the Greek definition may.

From the TDNT:

Rob

 

Deacon JD: //I don't see anyone wanting to change Shakespeare because
we have a hard time "understanding it. //

Nobody is depending upon Shakespere to define the way to
Salvation of their eternal soul. People need an understandable
Bible for the salvation of their eternal soul.

 

May I remind you Ed that without preaching no one will be saved. The devil knows scripture better than you or I either one and he's not saved. The sinner can read all he wants to out of a new watered down version but it will not do him any good. It is impossible for the sinner to understand the things of God. Thank God for our preachers. Without the preached Word of God, the Holy Ghost, and the church their will never be a sinner saved.

 

There are two possible responses to this. Since your post was unclear, I'll post both responses. Pick the one that corresponds with your intent:

1. If you're saying that just reading the Word of God is not enough, then you're right...but why did you leave the KJV out of the mix?

2. You're saying a modern version of the Word can't reach a lost person? What a load.

If you were implying #2, you're attacking God's word, and I tend to think that's a bad idea.

 

I am saying that just reading the Word of God is not enough. Probably to the surprise of many I do believe that there are many people that are reached by a modern version Bible even thought I have no use for the MV Bibles. They are reached by the gospel not the Bible being used. The gospel of Christ is the power of God unto salvation, and the gospel is the good news of Jesus Christ. I am thankful that God is able to overcome the errors and contradictions of the MV Bibles and provide an oppurtunity to be saved to all throught the preaching of his Word.

 

AV Jim:Since the claim was made that "corrupt" in 1600's meant "peddle" or some synonym thereof; and since I do not have a ready source for the Oxford Dictionary of the English language where I can show the 1600's meaning of the word:[/i]

"Corrupt" does not mean "peddle" or "make merchandise of"....The GREEK does! This word is "kaphleuw". You may check its definition in any lexicon of your choice.


Therefore I offer a question and a point of fact.
First the question.
Do any of you have a source for the Oxford Dictionary so we can verify this wild claim that corrupt meant "peddle" in the 1600's?

Dr. Thomas Cassidy does. Ya might PM him, but he hasn't posted for a little while & may be too busy to quickly reply.

Second the point of fact.
The word corrupt in 1828 DID NOT mean "peddle" in ANY of its uses.

And the Greek word doesn't mean "corrupt".

 

Uh- you mind telling me what the heck this is supposed to be?

I'm a "whole lot" confused here. What exactly is a KJVSL?

Ed

 

I wonder how anyone could have thought that? I certainly would have never guessed this in a million nanoseconds!

Ed

 

The other ed, EdSutton: //I'm a "whole lot" confused here. What exactly is a KJVSL?//

KJVSL: = King James Version with Strong's Links
Sort of a semi-Strong's concordance/lexacon/cross reference
Which uses some Greek terms. Sort of a half-breed
interlinear.