Is it better to give or receive?

Are you sure there is a harmonization here? I see a difference in "gave gifts to men" and "received gifts from men."

In the LXX it is Psalm 67:19, the phrase under consideration is ελαβες δοματα εν ανθρωπω: "He received gifts among man." Even the KJV follows the NIV at this point.

 

This is a footnote from the NET Bible: "A quotation which is perhaps ultimately derived from Ps 68:18. However, the wording here differs from that of Ps 68 in both the Hebrew text and the LXX in a few places, the most significant of which is reading “gave gifts to” in place of “received gifts from” as in HT and LXX. It has sometimes been suggested that the author of Ephesians modified the text he was citing in order to better support what he wanted to say here. Such modifications are sometimes found in rabbinic exegesis from this and later periods, but it is also possible that the author was simply citing a variant of Ps 68 known to him but which has not survived outside its quotation here (W. H. Harris, The Descent of Christ [AGJU 32], 104). Another possibility is that the words here, which strongly resemble Ps 68:19 HT and LXX (68:18 ET), are actually part of an early Christian hymn quoted by the author."

You might find this helpful.

 

Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive: thou hast received gifts for men; yea, for the rebellious also, that the LORD God might dwell among them. (Psalms 68:18, KJV)​

Several other versions avoid direct conflict by rendering the phrase "among men" (including the NKJV, ESV, NASB, RSV). The NLT has "from people"; the NIV has a note that "from men" could also be "for men". Darby translates it as "in Man".

 

I reckon some Greek-writing scribe who copied Ephesians coulda made a slight goof also.

 

How could the KJB ever follow the NIV?:laugh:

 

I seriously doubt that the receiving for men would also be "confused" as the LORD as well received gifts for the rebellious.

I believe some one is forgetting the prophetic value of the Psalm and the emphasis of Ephesians being after the Messiah had come as Immanuel bearing the gift of grace unto salvation.

Also, the LORD did receive some of the spoils taken from the conquored kings as offerings. These well might have been used to support some of the poor of any tribe considered to have within them some of the "rebellious".

Personally I believe it is the prophetic value that most overlook and only think there is some discrepency.

Paul, who worte Ephesians would not have made a mistake in this. The "idea" of scribal error is one of the silliest arguements ever offered. Scribal corruption? Yes. Often.

 

Noteworthy thought, indeed.:thumbs: