Is The Foreknowledge of God Same As His Fore Causing?

First, he said "exhaustive determinists" not "exhaustive sovereignty" (but maybe those mean the same thing to you?)

Second, there is no need to insult anyone's level of education or understanding. These are confusing issues.

Typically Calvinists fall into the "compatibilistic" philosophical framework, where as hyper-Calvinists fall more in line with "hard/exhaustive determinists."

Well, that would depend on how one defines their terms. The idea of "ordaining" can include God's permissive decrees, which hard determinists really don't allow any room for in their framework.

Again, no real need to get personal on this matter Luke. The differences being expressed here are not a result of the level of education of each participant.

 

Foreunion !

1 Pet 1:2

2Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Election to Salvation [Subjectively] finds its cause in God's Love first of all and God's Foreknowledge or Foreunion.

Foreunion is presented by the term Foreknowledge, it comes from the greek word pro-ginoskw, and has a meaning " to know in union and experience before hand. The Ideal is reflected when look at the situation with Joseph and Mary, its stated Matt 1:25

25And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

The knew her not denotes intimacy, now lets look at the amplified Translation Matt 1:25

25But he had no union with her as her husband until she had borne her firstborn Son; and he called His name Jesus.

25 But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus. NIV 1984

The word denotes the most intimate knowledge and union possible for men to understand and experience. Its used of Christ and His Sheep Jn 10:14

I am the good shepherd, and know my sheep, and am known of mine.

It is also used of the husband and wife relationship and intimacy. Foreknowledge in this instance of salvation is not a matter of foreseeing [though the Father does foresee all] of a person and their actions, but an actual union that existed between the Father and His elect Children before the creation. Remember Jesus stated in His Prayer Jn 17:6

6I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.

This is a testimony that those given to Christ in Election belonged to the Father before being given. For it was the Fathers bond of Love towards these individuals that lead to their being Chosen in Christ Jn 17:23-24.

23I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

24Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.

Now, was not the Father and the Son intimate and in Union with their Love ? Thats the same intimate love union with those Chosen in Christ..

 

Re the question in the OP: "Is The Foreknowledge of God Same As His Fore Causing?"
I vote 'no'.

 

jesus:

Yes, God's foreknowledge is premised upon His determinate counsel according to Acts 2:

23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

So God is the First Cause of all things good or evil because they could only occur by Him giving it or them being in the first place. And God gives being according to His determinate purpose.

 

Foreknowlege is a natural attribute of an eternal, all-knowing God, rather than a causative action. He acts of His own determination and for His own purpose, and not because of man's actions.

Cheers,

Jim