Is the NKJV a good version of the bible?

Judgment, as in at the great white throne.

I don't see how you get that without jumping through all kinds of hoops.

 

I just looked up the words, myself, in some references, as to what the words were, in the Greek text. Try to hang with me on this, if possible. One is a verb, "krinO" transliterated, and the other is a noun, "krisis". Amazingly enough , the noun "krisis" is from the verb "krinO". In other words, they are the same in the Greek. Granted, in English, "Condemnation and judgment do not (necessarily) mean the same thing." (My emphasis, and addition) But that is no sign that they cannot.

Someone correct me if I am wrong, but I was under the impression that the NT was written in 'koine Greek', and not written in 17th Century English, any more than it was written in 20th Century English. And I was under the impression that we have translated, and do translate, from the Greek into English, not the other way around.

With all due respect, this reverse translation seems to be what you are advocating or arguing for, and simply put, does not get to the question of the thread in any real way, but is a thinly veiled attempt to steer this in a very different direction.

I thought I would say this as diplomatically as possible, for me. If any one is still wondering, I can spell it out MUCH more clearly, and even more explicitly, but I do try to not hijack threads.

Ed

 

:thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup:

 

Old Strong's defines Krisis as:

1. accusation
2. condemnation
3. damnation
4. judgment

I have a Greek book defending modern versions against the KJV. It defines “Krisis”:

• Condemnation
• Accusation
• Judgment

A definition of "condemn" in a dictionary said, "to declare to be guilty."

A definition of "judge" in a dictionary said, "to hear cases in a court." The term, "judgment" means the act of judging or deciding.

I have a Bible dictionary. It defines, “condemnation” as “to declare a person guilty.” It explains that there is condemnation for unbelievers only. It does not say “judgment” for them.

 

John 5:24 in the NKJV does not say it as bold above.

 

Askjo,

I said that I don't have much time for this, and I don't. So I'll be brief...

No, actually the Bible does not teach that every believe will be judged. KRISIS is "judgment." BEMA is not. The Bible teaches that every believer will be evaluated at the BEMA seat.

I do understand what you're saying about the Great White throne judgment and the difference between "condemnation" and "judgment" and have big problem with it. However, why does almost every Bible have "judgment" rather than "condemnation" in those verses? That's a good question to ask ourselves.

And regarding Strong's... well, I really only pay attention to the two lexicons that the professionals use, and it isn't Strong's. They are Bauer, Gingrich & Danker (BGAD) and Liddell & Scott (L&S). I stand by what I said earlier.

Now regarding whether or not the KJV by using "condemnation" is more clear than the use by other translations of "judgment," I agree. It does avoid some confusion there. Of course, if we consider the many places in which the KJV introduces confusion by the choice of their words, we'd see there are many more than with the NKJV. In general, where the NKJV uses different words than the KJV it is either because the words have changed over the centuries or because the KJV could be improved upon.

Now you looked at the English definitions of "condemnation." But that does not represent what KRISIS means... to declare to be not guilty." That is not what it means. That is close to what DIKAIOW ("justify") means, but not KRISIS. ("judgment")

Here's BGAD:

Now, I agree with you regarding the GWT judgment and the BEMA seat. But the root idea of KRISIS is not condemnation, but judgment, so how can you get after someone for translating it that way? Often it is used in the NT to refer to judgment in which the person is found at fault and hence condemned. But translating it as "condemned" does not allow the reader to see all of the nuances of the word. That's why I think most translators use "judgment" instead of ""judgment" IOT prevent reading their theology into it.

Also sometimes KRISIS has a positive condemnation... the idea that God may judge and find us to be without fault and hence bring justice, though that is not very common.

All that said, I do not have a problem with the KJV translating it as "condemnation." It may be a better way to go. But I will noit find fault with everyone else either.

FA

 

L&S also

I mentioned L&S, so here it is as well:

L&S looks pretty close to Strong's. Don't even see "condemnation" there.

FWIW,

FA

 

The NKJV and the KJV are not Greek Bibles, but they are English Bibles. Judgment and condemnations are not Greek words but we read them in English.

 

Sorry, but I don't get your point. We are talking about whether "judgment" is a valid translation of a Greek word. The NT was written in Greek, not English.

??

FA

 

This thread will be closed on page 20.

 

The Bible was written in Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic. What we read in English is merely a translation of the original languages. We seek to determine the best translation of the original languages. You must remember, askjo, that the Bible was not written in English.

 

Correct!

Correct!

Which translation is best?

Correct, but what the Bible? The KJV? Is the KJV not the English Bible? The NKJV? Is the NKJV not the English Bible? If neither the KJV or nor NKJV, what the Bible?

 

My point is the question on the word, "judgment" -- Is this word, "judgment" English or Greek? Many people do not know the Greek language because they do not read any words in Greek. They read/speak English, not Greek. When they read in English, they read "judgment." If they read in Greek, they read, "krisis" in their Greek Bible, then no plm! They understand what the judgment is and what the condemnation is during they read the Bible in English. The KJV translators were wise to correctly translate the word on the verse what we discussed in previous posts. Is the NKJV not clear on this verse?

 

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