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Is The Phrase "Son of man"In Old Versions Always Legitimate

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Rippon2, Jan 25, 2020.

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  1. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    In about 80 references in Ezekiel it does not apply to Jesus. Common sense should tell us that much.

    Here are some other places in which the archaic 'son of man' has nothing to do with Jesus. I'll be quoting from the NIV (surprise, surprise).

    Numbers 23:19
    God is not human, that he should lie, not a human being, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?

    Psalm 144:3
    Lord, what are human beings that you care for them, mere mortals that you think of them?
    [Does it remind you of Psalm 8:4?]

    Psalm 146:3
    Do not put your trust in princes, in human beings, who cannot save.

    Isaiah 51:12
    I, even I, am he who comforts you. Who are you that you fear mere mortals, human beings who are but grass.
     
    #1 Rippon2, Jan 25, 2020
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    How about Psalm 8, and Daniel 8:44?
     
    #2 Yeshua1, Jan 25, 2020
  3. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    There is no Daniel 8:44. The point was this : did you read the four passages I listed? Do you agree with me, or not. If not explain why.
     
    #3 Rippon2, Jan 25, 2020
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    My bad, meant Daniel 7:13-14!
     
    #4 Yeshua1, Jan 25, 2020
  5. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    Tell the truth. Though you quoted the entire D.A. Carson article, you did not read it. Fess up. You need to engage your mind.

    Read his article with comprehension.

    Then, respond to my OP. Are those four references to Jesus or humanity?
     
    #5 Rippon2, Jan 25, 2020
  6. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    What do you mean by "old versions"? I looked at Numbers 23:19 on Bible Gateway and found at least five versions copyrighted between 2014-2019 that have the phrase "son of man" used in that verse.

    What do you mean by "legitimate"? You ask this in the title, but then in the text switch to talk about whether the phrase always refers to Jesus when it used.
     
    #6 rlvaughn, Jan 25, 2020
  7. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    The NIV uses the phrase as well, but it is from an old tradition carried over from the 16th century --before the KJV.
    Is it legitimate or appropriate to use the term when people are easily confused that it must refer to Jesus each and every time?
     
    #7 Rippon2, Jan 26, 2020
  8. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Thanks for the clarification. It seems, then, you are talking about the long standing way of translating this into English, rather than "old versions" specifically.
    It must be legitimate and appropriate, since even the NIV does it.
     
    #8 rlvaughn, Jan 26, 2020
  9. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    Did you ever wonder about the fact that the term "Son of man" is not used in any of Paul's epistles?
     
    #9 Rippon2, Jan 26, 2020
  10. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    No. Neither am I now.

    "Son of man" is used, however, in possibly 200 verses in the NIV (Unfortunately, the Bible Gateway search I used seems to not be able to distinguish between "son of man" and "son of Manasseh".) Many of these probably have "nothing to do with Jesus."
     
    #10 rlvaughn, Jan 26, 2020
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