Jesus or God 2

I'm no expert but looking at the Greek he appears to be quoting Romans.

Bruce Metzger thought that the difference pre-dated Polycarp's writings.

I personally think that the difference is negligible and doesn't change the meaning of the passage in any significant way.

Rob

 

I agree , I don't think it makes a big difference either.

 

That is to say, the earliest reading (ca. 150) is also the "majority" reading in Rom 14:10, i.e., "of Christ." At an early date it was probably changed to "of God" to conform it to the text of the following verse (v. 11).

What is interesting is that this earliest source also appears to omit the "to God" of verse 12, along with Vaticanus and a few other important manuscripts.

Both of these examples just go to show that many of the errors in the text predate our earliest manuscripts (usually Aleph & B) by 200 years or so, and so appealing to the earliest manuscripts alone is rather foolish in and of itself. Textual criticism has much more to do with than simply appealing to the earliest manuscripts that most of time are far later than the variants attested in all surviving documents. Although age of a document is important, it can hardly be the deciding factor.