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Featured Jn 6:45 "all" = "every man" = come unto me

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by The Biblicist, Jul 24, 2013.

  1. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    You cannot possibly be as stupid are you are pretending to be. Just because verse 44 says no man can come unless he was drawn does not mean that "him" that is drawn will come.

    See, you are trying to make "him" mean one single person. But that is clearly shown to be error by the next verse.

    Jhn 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

    Your view is destroyed, because the "him" in verse 44 is referred to as "they" by Jesus in the very next verse.

    If your wierd interpretation were correct, then Jesus would be speaking of only one single person in verse 44 and nobody else. You would only be able to argue that this one unknown "him" was drawn, and that this one unknown "him" would be raised up at the last day.

    Give it up dude.
     
  2. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    This is a full admission you have lost the debate because if you knew what you were talking about you would simply provide the evidence instead of restorting to personal attacks and name calling.


    The wording of verse 44 is intentional to harmonize with "all" who have been thus "taught" in verse 45 as "all" thus taught in verse 45 do in fact "come unto me." They come on an individual basis (v. 44) but the totality of individuals all were drawn/taught the same way and "ALL" came to Christ (v. 45)

    Do you know the difference between a third person singular and a third person plural???? Apparently not! Notice that the noun is singular "man" and the pronouns are singular "him" and that is by purpose. That grammatically and logically prohibits the very interpretation you are embracing. If "no man" but "him" drawn is provided in this text then it must be "him" that comes and is raised as every other man has been prohibited by the universal negative "no man can" but "him." Find any other option but "him" drawn that can or does come. Find any other man but "him" that is raised but "him" drawn? There is none. That is intentional so that the Father's work of giving correspondes to the Father's work of teaching that none but those considered in each case do in fact come and none are lost.

    According to your interpretation there is no reason for Jesus using the singular in verse 44 and changing to the plural in verse 45.

    Verse 45 repudiates your whole interpretation of verse 44 because "ALL" taught" (drawn) do come to Christ! That fact repudiates your interpretation that "him" drawn does not come to Christ in verse 44.

    The singular in verse 44 demonstrates this is an INDIVIDUAL experience whereas the plural in verse 45 denies it is limited to just one person but to "all" that God has taught and "all" He has taught do in fact come to Christ. Again, that little fact repudiates your whole interpretation of verse 44.

    Salvation is strictly INDIVIDUAL - v. 44 but "all" those individuals are taught/drawn the same way and they all come to Christ - v. 45

    Verse 45 simply demonstrates that individual salvation (v. 44) applies to "all" that are eventually "taught" (drawn) by Christ.
     
  3. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Biblicist,

    Would the following thinking be inconsistent with the context?
    The rational for this thinking is found in the two prepositions "of" and "from."
    "It is written in the prophets, ‘And they shall all be taught of God.’"
    But not everyone "taught of God" actually is given eyes to see and ears to hear. Therefore the verse concludes that those that are given to see and hear do come.
    "Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me."

    I have taught thousands of students who never learned. Isn't it historically accurate with the wisdom and teaching of God, also?

    The determining factor isn't the teaching, it is the ability to hear and learn.

    Such ability comes "FROM" the father, not from learning "OF" God.

    Your thoughts?
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Here is the text:

    The text does say "they shall all be taught" and then says everyone who has heard and learned. Thus equating hearing and learning with being taught. This is not a perversion of the text, it is simply stating what the text actually says.

    Who will the Father raise up? Those that come to Me!

    Who comes to Me, everyone who has heard and learned, i.e. been taught by the Father.

    a) No one can come to Me unless the Father draws him. "Him" refers to the ones that are drawn and come to Me.
    b) Who will the Father raise up? The drawn ones who come to Me. The ones who will not be cast out. The ones given to Me.
    c) Thus the one who hears, and learns and thus the one whose faith is declared righteousness, shall be given to Me and be raised up on the last day. It is a lock.​
     
    #24 Van, Jul 28, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 28, 2013
  5. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Since the other thread on John 6:44 "him" was shut down on the home thread and since I was told to pick it up here then I am transferring my last substantive response to skandelon to this thread since it is not on this thread:

    Originally Posted by Skandelon
    At the Army headquarters a General makes this statement:
    "No one can join the Army unless a Army recruiter has recruited him, and the Army will train him to fight to his greatest potential."
    Most understand that the recruiters certainly attempted to recruit many who refused to come, but that the General is merely addressing those who were recruited and actually joined. It is obviously presumed in the statement that the one recruited actually joined the Army and thusly will be trained. No one would jump to the unfounded conclusion that everyone who the army attempts to recruit will be trained to fight. Likewise, we KNOW that God sends his APPEAL TO BE RECONCILED to all men, thus 'bidding' or 'drawing' or 'calling' them to be reconciled, but obviously not all of those he appeals to will be saved.


    The above presentation by Skandelon is his best presentation of his illustration and application to John 6:44.

    I have been able to get away from this argument for a while and give his illustration a little more consideration.

    This illustration is not a proper parallel illustration with John 6:44 and therefore supports a theological position that is contrary to John 6:44 for the following reasons:

    1. The source of inability is not parallel. In John 6:44 the inability is found INTERNAL and inherent in “him” (“no man can”) whereas the source of inability in his illustration is not found internal or inherent in the person being recruited but EXTERNAL to the person of the recruit but found in the arbritrary policy imposed upon him by the Army policy.

    2. The nature of the inability is not parallel. In John 6:44 the nature of the inability is not merely internal and inherent in “him” but it is a SPIRITUAL inability that prevents him from coming to Christ– “no man can come.” Coming to Christ is a SPIRITUAL act and the words “no man can” demands a universalSPIRITUAL inability to come to Christ except by the power of God – draw him. However, in his illustration the issue of inability is not merely external to the person of the recruit but it is NON-SPIRITUAL.

    3. The cause of inability is not parallel. In John 6:44 the stated cause is the very thing his illustration is designed to deny – Total Spiritual Inability. The words “no man can” is a universal negative that demands all men are without spiritual ability to come to Christ APART FROM God’s intervention to “draw” him. However, the whole illustration given by Skandelon is designed to deny this very inherent demand of John 6:44 and his parallel is external to the person of the recruit.

    4. The Purpose is not parallel. The purpose of John 6:44 is not to explain contrary options due to being drawn, but to present drawing as the only means to overcome universal inherent inability to come to Christ.

    5. John 6:45 reinforces drawing by the Father by scripture and explanation and 100% "taught" come to Christ. This is explanatory of what it means to draw, which is an INTERNAL and SPIRITUAL act by God within the man that results in coming to Christ. 100% taught come and that repudiates your interpretation and illustration of John 6:44

    CONCLUSION: Therefore, his illustration fails to be parallel in crucial areas with John 6:44. His illustration is not parallel with the source, nature or cause of the inability to come to Christ. Indeed, his illustration is designed to deny what John 6:44 demands – universal spiritual inability.
     
  6. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    The first clause simply contains the Scripture quotation. The second clause interprets the scripture quotation. You have the scripture quoted for one reason and the second clause dealing with another subject. That is irrational as no one quotes a scripture simply to counter it or change the subject but that is precisely what your interpretation of verse 45 demands.
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    1) The text, above, does say "and they shall be all taught by God" and then equates this with hearing and learning from the Father.

    2) The next point, from the above text, is the observation, that the first "him" in the text refers to folks who have been drawn, and the second "him" to those who have been drawn and have come to Me, and therefore, will be raised up on the last day.

    a) The text does not say everyone drawn comes to Me, but rather that all who come to Me were drawn.

    b)The text does say everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to Me, and equates this with being "taught of God."​

    3) This view is not "irrational" but simply reiterates the text.
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    To claim no one can come unless drawn means everyone drawn comes is irrational. It is like saying no one can jump out of an airplane unless they fly in an airplane means everyone who flies in an airplane jumps out of it. Good golly miss molly.
     
  9. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    As I said before, he can't possibly be as stupid as he is putting on. He is simply being stubborn and obstinate when he KNOWS he is wrong.

    Kinda like arguing with a teenager. :laugh:
     
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