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John 5:1-12: Child or child?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Jamal5000, Mar 19, 2007.

  1. Jamal5000

    Jamal5000 New Member

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    Ladies and Gentlemen,

    I'm preparing for church school next week, and our lesson is coming from John 5:1-12. How do you interpret the word child and children in the first few versus? Is God talking about Christ in the first verse and the "children of God" (i.e. disciples) in the second verse?

    What do you think?

    Thanks For Your Help:)
     
  2. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    You lost me here. John 5:1-12 is about the impotent man that was laid up for 38 years by the pool of Bethesda of the 5 porches. Jesus Healed him and made him whole. No talking of Child or Children there. Maybe you gave the wrong verses.


    However, if you are speaking of 1 John 5 then context makes it appearent as to whom it is referencing.

    Could you be more specific?
     
    #2 Allan, Mar 19, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 19, 2007
  3. Jamal5000

    Jamal5000 New Member

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    1 John was right

    Thanks Allan. I did mean first John--must have been typing to fast. If the apparent context is correct, then I think I've got it. Never can be to careful sometimes.

    My appreciation.
     
  4. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    Context in verse 1 is speaking to those who are born again or a believer(individuals)
    Context in verse 2 is speaking to all beleivers that should be holding a love for all other believers.
     
  5. Jamal5000

    Jamal5000 New Member

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    Thanks Again, Allan

    I Appreciate your help. :thumbs:
     
  6. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    No Problem, God bless your studies and give you knowledge, understanding, and wisdon concerning those things He gives you to teach upon.
    :wavey: :godisgood:
     
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