Just to clarify misunderstanding...

Dear Ladies:

I am sorry that my previous thread got misunderstood. My friend was say that the "dressing like a man" (I am NOT saying anything about a specific garment) was an indiomatic expression to express/say lesbian. It is not that one who wears anything specific is a lesbian. My friend was saying that the expression was like a code expression for saying lesbian. So that bit of Deuteronomy was addressing sodomites are an abomination and not how we dress. Does that make sense now?

God bless,

Princess

 

Dear Ladies:

An idiom is where the phrase means one thing that is not the same meaning when we translate word for word.

Our LORD was NOT addressing modest dress but sodomites as a group. It was like a covert expression for indicating that group.

In this case, "Dressing like a man" was code for "lesbian" and would have been understood as direct reference to lesbians to Hebrews. There is nothing about needing to take that to then apply to a particular garment or not if that is a correct understanding of that phrase/expression. In essence, that piece of Deuteronmy could be translated to "Lesbians are an abomination. Sodomites are an abomination." I may be using too many words here to overexplain, but since my previous post was misunderstood in my brevity, I thought it wiser to verge into overexplaining than to risk being misunderstood in such a manner again.

God bless,

Princess

 

Her friend may be correct, but it seemed in the previous thread that some of the ladies thought I was accusing them of being lesbians for wearing pants and that was not the case. The thread got closed before I could correct the misunderstanding, and I thought the correction of what I was expressing needed to happen so you would know I was NOT saying such pants-wearing women are lesbians.

Whether the idiomatic translation is correct or not is another whole puppy.

God bless,

Princess

 

I'm doing a study on Spiritual Warfare with loads of cross-referencing to Revelation. In another related thread which was closed due to a misunderstanding I had said:

And someone told me that my saying that was proof of my being a novice with studying the bible. I make no claims to superlatives for my studies, but I did come across my source for that statement and wanted to share it here.

It is in Thayer's Lexicon of Greek
http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/1061013088-6402.html

I am not saying this is even necessarily a correct understanding of the metaphor. I am not a Greek scholar and surely could not say. But I do always find it fruitful to examine and examine scripture and to do word studies before drawing conclusions.

God bless!

Princess