kjv against the rest. Is it as bad I as I am led to believe?

Your mistake.

"pasha" is a time period not a day.

The time in this passage is the day that Easter fell on and it wasn't exactly the passover, now was it? Be truthful here.

And we being Baptist baptize by immersion.

Your suspicions are unwarranted.

What IS the underlying word for church and just where does it mean anything different?

Just where did the KJV have it "wrong"?

I have this feeling you're fixing to start yelling at me or at least start pulling your hair out.:smilewinkgrin:

 

Nice, and quite philandering there. You know I am referring to the malignant Greek text:tongue3:

 

You're ad-libbing htere. I have never said the KJV corrects the Greek.

Maybe that's what your problem is- bolsters.

Does it all depend on which Greek text one uses? OR NOT!:tongue3:

 

Earth to DHK, which planet are you on now?

We're in the Book of John.

 

Are you now? I do remember reading something of that.
I also read the great "agape" chapter of 1Cor.13 which Paul wrote. Don't you think you are making a mountain out of a molehill?

 

So why did other versions also translate it as baptize? Were they trying to please the Anglican church?

NIV - Mar 1:4 -
And so John came, baptizing in the desert region and preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

ESV - Mar 1:4 -
John appeared, baptizing in the wilderness and proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

NASB - Mar 1:4 -
John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.

NKJV - Mar 1:4 -
John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

 

I don't know what planet you are living on, but this is not my mistake. And this is why you should learn Greek and be done with it.
Pascha is a Greek word that is used 29 times in the NT. It means passover. It has no other meaning than passover. If you want me to post the references where it is found, I can do that for you too. Of the 29 times it is used it is translated correctly: "passover." Only once is it translated incorrectly: "Easter." Now why would that be? It does not mean Easter. It means passover.

Yes, it was the time of the passover, as the Scripture says it is.

Acts 12:4 whom having seized he put in prison, having delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep, purposing after the passover to bring him out to the people. (Darby)

So why didn't the KJV translators say that? Why didn't they say what they meant to say, and not beat around the bush?

"I immerse you..."

The word that that the KJV translators have translated as "church" is ekklesia, which does not mean church at all. It means "assembly." Its etymology is "to call out." But the meaning of the word is simply assembly. A church is an assembly of believers. There is another Greek word for church, but it is not found in the NT. The word should have been translated "assembly."

For example:
1 Corinthians 1:2 to the assembly of God which is in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus, called saints, with all that in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both theirs and ours: (Darby)

 

Yes, most of them followed suit. The mv's you referred to are just that--modern translations which by that time had to accommodate Presbyterian, Lutheran, Anglican, and of course Baptist. You can make the English word "baptist" mean anything you want when it comes to baptism. But the Greek word "baptidzo" has only one meaning: "to immerse."

 

Nope, just sticking with the subject and the KJV.

Your slant didn't quite go as far as you'd hoped.:sleep:

 

Oh, Sister, now you've confused them with the facts.:wavey:

 

For your sake I re-word my statement:

I didn't know that the Apostle John spoke the King James English?

 

Um, DHK, the church is the called out assembly, not just a simple assembly of persons, The KJV got it right.

You do know there is a denomination called "The Assembly of God", is it a church of sorts.:sleep:
"Pascha
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The Resurrection of ChristPascha (Greek: Πάσχα), also called Easter, is the feast of the Resurrection of the Lord. Pascha is a transliteration of the Greek word, which is itself a transliteration of the Hebrew pesach, both words meaning Passover. (A minority of English-speaking Orthodox prefer the English word 'Pasch.')

Pascha normally falls either one or five weeks later than the feast as observed by Christians who follow the Gregorian calendar. However, occasionally the two observances coincide, and on occasion they can be four weeks apart. The reason for the difference is that, though the two calendars use the same underlying formula to determine the festival, they compute from different starting points. The older Julian calendar's solar calendar is 13 days behind the Gregorian's and its lunar calendar is four to five days behind the Gregorian's.

The Term Easter
Some Orthodox Christians discourage the use of the word Easter, believing that the term has roots in pagan rites of the spring equinox and overtones of fertility. Most English speakers are unaware of the etymological origins of Easter, however, and use it without any sense of pagan connotations, and so Easter is also used by many Orthodox English speakers.

The origin of the term Easter comes from the Germanic name for the month in which the Christian feast usually fell, and so, just as the American civic holiday of the Fourth of July has nothing to do with Julius Caesar for whom July was named, neither does Easter have anything to do with the pagan goddess Eostre, the namesake of the month in which Pascha fell. This potential difficulty only exists for speakers of Germanic languages, however. Most languages in the world use a cognate form of the Greek term Pascha and so are free of any pagan connotations for the name of the feast.

According to Bede, writing in De Tempore Rationum ("On the Reckoning of Time"), Ch. xv, "The English months," the word is derived from Eostre, a festival. Bede connects it with an Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, to whom the month answering to our April, and called Eostur-monath, was dedicated. The connection is often assumed, without quoting Bede himself, who says,

In olden times the English people— for it did not seem fitting to me that I should speak of other nations' observance of the year and yet be silent about my own nation's— calculated their months according to the course of the Moon. Hence, after the manner of the Greeks and the Romans, [the months] take their name from the Moon, for the moon is called mona and each month monath.
The first month, which the Latins call January, is Giuli; February is called Solmonath; March Hrethmonath; April, Eosturmonath[...etc.]
Eosturmonath has a name which is now translated "Paschal month", and which was once called after a goddess of theirs named Eostre, in whose honour feasts were celebrated in that month. Now they designate that Paschal season by her name, calling the joys of the new rite by the time-honoured name of the old observance.
Pascha and Natural Religion
There is, however, a connection which may be drawn between the pre-Christian celebrations and the feast of the Resurrection of Christ. Just as Christ's incarnation is the ultimate fulfilment of the best hopes of all "natural" religion, so can Pascha be understood as being the ultimate springtime of mankind. The pre-Christian celebrations of the renewal of creation in the Spring find their completion in the Resurrection, the passage from death to life of the incarnate Son of God, and with him all creation. "

Seems you like to limit things to your definition ONLY.

 

The Passover lasted more than one day, BTW. Easter is only one day.

 

You are not making sense. The word ekkesia means assembly. You are working from the KJV back to the Greek as if the KJV were inspired and over-rides the Greek. The Greek word ekklesia means assembly, not church. It never did mean church. Look in any Greek lexicon. It doesn't matter how you define the English word "church." That doesn't matter a whit. What does matter is what the Greek word "ekklesia" means, and it doesn't mean "church."

Again you are working backwards from our history to theirs, as if 20th/21st Century history over-rides the history and culture of the times that the Bible was written in. It is as if you really, really do believe that John and Paul spoke the language of the KJV. No, John and Paul and the others had no idea of today's church called the "Assembly of God." That is a red herring on your part. It doesn't affect the translation. The translation is still more accurate with the word "assembly" in it.

Again you are using English to define Greek. You are working backwards again. Do you believe that the KJV is more inspired than the Greek? Really?
Pascha means passover. That is the only meaning it has among the Jews. There were not "English-speaking Orthodox" at the time of Christ. Why are you trying to impose an English speaking people into the time and culture of Christ?

The Gregorian Calendar came into existence around 1580 A.D.!!!
Why are you trying to impose something that came over 1500 years after Christ into the time of Christ? Again and again you have tried to do this. It doesn't work.

I limit my definitions to what the Bible says they are. You broaden them to paganism, modern English definitions which the apostles and writers of Scripture knew nothing about. Your entire research is bogus.

 

The actual Passover was a one night event, but the Feast of Unleavened Bread, also called the Passover, lasted for a week.

 

I am sorry Bob, but you are wrong here. There is in fact a long history of various "olnyisms" that dates back about as far as translations do. The Vulgate was rejected by those who believed that the Old Latin Version was the ONLY Word of God in Latin. The same is true of the AV, which was rejected by some who were Bishop's Bible Only and so on. One could be forgiven for thinking that "onlyism" dates to the day after the first translation was made.

 

So, let me get this straignt. It is your claim that the KJV translators were the exclusive recipients of God's wisdom that no other translators in the world have since been the recipient of?

 

I did that here:

http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1462782&postcount=143

There's no exact English word for the Greek word "Agape". The closest one can translate it is "perfect love without condition", but a full definition would require significantly more verbage. It's the kind of love God has for us.

The same way you derived "meat offering" to be an offering of animal flesh, I'm sure. Presuming you did (and that's a huge presumption), that's not support for KJVOism.

Which doesn't change the fact that the English word for "pascha" is "passover", not "easter". BTW is just one night. The feast lasts several days, but the actually passover itself is just one night.

 

Yes, you did. Your previous post says that if the Greek denies what the KJV says, then it must be because the Greek was corrupt.

 

In the context of koine Greek ekklesia only means "assembly", BUT in the context of the word of God ekklesia means "a clled out assembly which makes up the church".

as for the GREGORIan calendar you are one to demand the word be updated into today's English but then you object to the English version using an updated reference to the time in question.

"Passover" doesn't make and exact time point, Easter does.

Learn chronology.