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kjv against the rest. Is it as bad I as I am led to believe?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by WITBOTL, Oct 17, 2009.

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  1. Harold Garvey

    Harold Garvey New Member

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    "the GreeK" is defined as how many different Greeks?

    I was referring to the CORRUPT Greek which your heroes W/H used and maligned the Bible!
     
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Interesting, because the current Jewish reference to the time in question is still Passover.
     
  3. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    We've only been talking about koine greek. Nice dodge though.
    Again, nice dodge, but you haven't even demonstrated a verse in question, let alone a source text in question. You simply made the blanket statement that if the Greek denies what the KJV says, then it must be because the Greek was corrupt.
     
  4. Harold Garvey

    Harold Garvey New Member

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    Yes, you are right, but not everyone knows that.

    Easter makes a specific time reference as to when Peter was taken captive and to be executed.

    I believe the reference to Easter is more accurate.

    The KJV is more accurate.
     
  5. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    These are very careless statements. In fact, they are intentionally misleading statements. You know full well that the overwhelming majority of those holding to a KJV-only view would not agree with the positions you ascribe to them above. Sure, the extreme faction of KJVO (Ruckman) might, but you know that they do not represent the whole.
     
  6. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Then why didn't they translate the word "called out assembly"? The word church is a wrong translation. It is an English word with about five or more definitions, and therefore obscuring the true definition of the word ekklesia. Ekklesia means assembly. Here it is correctly translated:

    Acts 19:39 But if ye enquire any thing concerning other matters, it shall be determined in a lawful assembly.
    Acts 19:41 And when he had thus spoken, he dismissed the assembly.
    --The word ekklesia is used in both cases here. It means assembly and was correctly translated by the KJV translators at least in these two verses. If you look in other translations you will find that they correctly translate it in other places as I have already demonstrated to you:

    Romans 16:3-5 Salute Prisca and Aquila, my fellow-workmen in Christ Jesus, (who for my life staked their own neck; to whom not *I* only am thankful, but also all the assemblies of the nations,) and the assembly at their house. Salute Epaenetus, my beloved, who is the first-fruits of Asia for Christ.

    Romans 16:23 Gaius, my host and of the whole assembly, salutes you. Erastus, the steward of the city, salutes you, and the brother Quartus.

    2 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, apostle of Jesus Christ by God's will, and the brother Timotheus, to the assembly of God which is in Corinth, with all the saints who are in the whole of Achaia.

    Ephesians 5:24 But even as the assembly is subjected to the Christ, so also wives to their own husbands in everything.

    Darby's translation here is very accurate and more accurately translates ekklesia than the KJV. You need to put away your pride and accept it.
    No, I desire that words be translated accurately, not according your whims and fancies.
    You are wrong again. The passover as has been shown to you time and time again is a period of time. The word pascha means passover and has no other translation. You cannot win this argument. Pascha means passover; period; end of discussion. The word "easter is a wrong translation. Case closed. There is no other argument.

    Besides that Easter was a pagan festival that started close to 900 A.D.
    Your beloved KJV translators are off even in that historical event. They have no excuse for mis-translating "pascha." End of story.
     
  7. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Only because you believe whatever is in the KJV is more accurate, as referenced by your error in the rendering of "meat offering", and your excusing the use of "God forbid" and "God Save The King". Let me guess. It's the fault of those darned corrupt Greek manuscripts that "God forbid" and "God Save The King" are rendered as they are.
     
  8. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Let me ask you 2 questions:

    When did the passover occur?

    When did the Easter occur?
     
    #48 Askjo, Oct 21, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Oct 21, 2009
  9. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    In fact, Easter never occurred at the time of Christ. It didn't come into existence until hundreds of years later. If you don't believe me, listen to another scholar: Jamieson, Faucett and Brown:
     
  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    No, it ISN'T.

    EASTER DID NOT EXIST when Luke wrote Acts. Besides that, Luke used pascha, the word he used elsewhere in his writings when he was clearly referring to passover, the same word used by other writers of NT Scripture for passover, the same word rendered passover 28 times by the KJV.

    And the argument that older English versions subbed Easter for passover is no good. That practice appears to have died out by the time the KJV was made. Now, had they consistently written 'Easter' for 'pascha' every time, we could excuse it, but NOT when they did so only once. Besides that, the translators clearly knew Easter from passover, calling Easter one of the two holiest days of the year(along with Christmas) and including an "Easter-Finder" in the AV1611.

    So, NO, the KJV's use of "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is INaccurate, not more accurate.
     
  11. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Ruckman IS the voice of kjvonly, along with his cohorts in sin (Riplinger, et al).

    I don't blame kjvonies here to try to "distance themselves" from this man, but they cannot.

    IF you believe "only" the KJV (whichever revision you think is perfect) is the Word of God, THEN you are attacking the very core doctrine of inspiration and replacing the God-breathed Word with the Anglican-made words.

    And to argue that the KJV "corrects" the Greek or "expands" the Greek and that obvious man-made errors are really CORRECT shows a worship and fidelity that has moved from God's Word to man's word. Sadly.

    I'll opt for God's.
     
  12. Dale-c

    Dale-c Active Member

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    There was a time when I agreed with this. Sadly it is no longer true.
    It seems the majority of those hanging on to the KJVO doctrine are getting more extreme. The less extreme people are leaving it and the others are just chasing the quarter further down the sofa. Getting more extreme all the time.
     
  13. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    LOL!:laugh:
     
  14. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Is that an idiom in your area? I had never heard of it before. Perhaps you coined that yourself?
     
  15. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Every manuscript is corrupt to a greater or lesser degree.

    What's with the nonsense that Westcott and Hort "maligned the Bible"?! You are guilty of slandering them Harold.
     
  16. Dale-c

    Dale-c Active Member

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    No one around here uses it that I have ever heard.
    I have used it before, but I am not sure I quite coined it myself, I think I may have heard some one use it as an example once when I was a kid. I do think stated like that was original with me.
    It just seems to fit with someone chasing something that is perpetually just out of reach.

    Each time a KJVO comes up with something new, it causes more problems.

    Ultimately they find themselves in a sea of contradiction.
     
  17. Thermodynamics

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    I agree with you that Mr. Ruckman and his ilk have replaced God with the Authorized Version of the Bible as their object or worship. I see them as little better than the Baal worshipers of the Old Testament and perhaps worse because they have God's Word to warn them against what they are doing.

    I also believe that the radical KJVO group is doing great harm to the Authorized Version and the way it is viewed by Christians. I regret this very much because of the high regard in which I hold the AV.

    I also think that it is sad to see someone who claims to be a man of God insult the AV translators and the millions of Christians who for 400 years have respected the AV for the superb translation that it is, in the way the above quote and others like it do.
     
  18. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    The AV1611 and its various morphs into the common 1769 Oxford KJV were done by and for the Anglican Church. Many assume the "AV" = "Anglican Version" and we make no bones in showing the slant in translation away from the great Geneva Bible and into a far less valuable translation.

    And contrasted to translations that avail themselves of the best Greek, the ranking of the AV is slipping annually.

    Insult the AV translators? Insult Anglican baby-baptizing priests and prelates? For 50 years we see Baptists using NON-Anglican translations. Now, oddly, Baptists are rallying around the Anglican Version.

    Wonder if there are other closet Anglican teachings lurking in closets that our present Baptists find enticing.
     
  19. Thermodynamics

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    I am sure you are not the mean-spirited, uninformed, bigot this post makes you appear to be. I can only assume that you are having a bad night and it is my honest prayer that you'll fell better after a good night's sleep.

    The fact is that most of the AV translators were superbly well educated scholars AND Godly men who were doing their very best to provide an accurate version of the Bible and to serve God in so doing.

    We all fall short in some areas and I am sure that we all hold some doctrine or belief that will turn out to be false. However, thanks to God's grace and mercy, holding a false belief or doctrine does not negate every good thing we do in service to our fellow Christians. I believe we should be thankful for what the AV translators passed down to us.
     
  20. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Sorry I give the image of "mean-spirited". I fight against the "only sect" and the Ruckmanish worship of a man-made translation, elevating it to the point of a "god".

    You may think it a good translation (I see so many weaknesses and poor choices influenced by the English Catholics) and good underlying Greek texts (I see them as extremely weak and the Byzantine family the most corrupted by the Eastern Orthodox), and if you prefer it, God bless.

    I do not. And as I've stated, I cannot imagine what my Baptist forefathers would think to see "baptists" bowing to the Anglican Version instead of the Geneva and instead of the inspired Greek.
     
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