KJV only, KJVTR only and TR only

Michael 52:Assuming, for the sake of argument, that them is referring to the Lord's words: I'm having trouble seeing how this text is specifying their sole preservation in the TR or KJV or any other particular document. Maybe I'm experiencing a reading difficulty or I'm lacking spiritually. Someone please help!

Michael, I've many times, on many boards said that, assuming for the sake of argument that the KJVOs' assertion is true & that Ps 12:5-7IS about God's words, then these verses alone show the KJVO myth wrong, by the simple fact that no two English BVs made over the centuries is like any other, clearly revealing God is not limited to any one BV.

Personally, I believe that God has indeed preserved, presented, and provided His words for us-AS "HE" CHOOSES, regardless of the various myths and fishing stories of mere men.

 

What is the criteria for accuracy?

HankD </font>[/QUOTE]The KJV superiority. </font>[/QUOTE]Let me see if i'm following that
logic right:
The KJV1769 is superior to other versions
because it is accurate; the KJV1769 is
accurate because it is superior.

Can anybody spell CIRCULAR LOGIC?