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KJV vs. NIV

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Soulman, May 21, 2006.

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  1. Soulman

    Soulman New Member

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  2. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I think I've read it; the URL looks familiar. But I can't get it to work.
     
  3. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Never mind...it's "Dial The Truth" Ministries. That whole org is a joke. But I'll comment on it later; church time is approaching now.
     
  4. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    how about if we respond to the obvious error in the posted link instead. "Not Found" is the result that comes up whn your link is clicked.

    But that's okay. We don't need more trash that blasphemes the word of God and supports the KJVO myth, do we? From the wording of the OP I suppose this is exctly what the article or website does.

    The KJV does not need defending - it is the word of God and it has survived the test of time for nearly 400 years. But the NIV, the NASB and the NKJV are also the word of God, and because they are different from the KJV in places, they suffer false accusations, slurs and blasphemies. Are there any of these which teach against the deity of Christ? Of course not! Are there any of these which teach a means of salvation other than the shed blood of Jesus Christ? Of course not! Yet these "modern versions" face ridicule every day, and just because their wording and presentation is a little different from the KJV.
     
  5. Ransom

    Ransom Active Member

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    Soulman said:

    Here is a great article defending the KJV against the NIV.:

    Is the author delusional? Who says they're fighting?
     
  6. mcdirector

    mcdirector Active Member

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    The KJV doesn't need defending against the NIV. It is tried and true.

    I could make a list of other quality versions that also don't need defending, but they are listed on other threads (frequently being bashed and in need of defending).

    I just don't understand this debate. Read the KJV and read it alone if that's your preference, choice, or if you are led. BUT let others enjoy sound modern translations without comment or at least not ridicule.
     
  7. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    As I said...THAT WHOLE SITE IS A JOKE! Just look at the list of "contributors" to that comedy of errors:

    Dr. James Melton
    Dr. Sam Gipp
    Dr. Herb Evans(Pops up on Yahoo occasionally, too big a coward to debate)
    Snatches feom Dr. David Reagan

    So far, the list is bad enuff, but it gets worse:

    GAIL RIPLINGER!

    DR. LAWRENCE VANCE, of "SEVEN CHURCH AGES" heresy fame!

    And worst of all, TERRY WATKINS, the rocket scientist who started the triquetra stuff found in the "general Baptist discussions" forum! He's also the paragon of erudition who gave us "The mvs deny the Deity of Christ in Luke 2:43 by calling Joseph His father". Obviously he ignored Luke 2:41 & 48 in his KJV. Real bright guy!

    Soulman, you'de well to delete that trash from your computer. But since you wanted to discuss differences between the KJV & NIV from that site, here ya go:

    Let's look at the Galatians 6:1 thingie.

    YES IT IS, in modern English.

    The Greek word, here rendered "fault" in the KJV, is 'paraptoma'. This SAME WORD is rendered "sin" several times in the KJV; Eph. 7:1 will do for an example. James 5:16 translates the same word "faults". In this sense, a fault was a sin in 17th C. English.

    THAT KJVO argument is now dead.

    HORSE FEATHERS.

    Again, this is the very same Greek word, 'paraptoma'. The same ole argument is just as stupid in this verse as it is for Gal. 6:1.

    I CAN'T GO ON...THIS WHOLE ARTICLE IS GARBAGE! IT MAKES ME WANNA PUKE! IT'S A PACK OF LIES ! ! !

    HERE'S THE END OF IT:

    Yes, it is...and THIS geveration is part of "every" generation. That's why God caused versions for OUR generations to be made.

    [snipped]

    Yes, He shall preserve HIS PEOPLE, as the KJV translators indicated in their marginal note!

    The author is this piece of junk is one Lance Schmidt. We can now add his name to the list of popinjays who have contributed their codwallop to the "Dial-A-Lie" site.

    Soulman, you may be my bro-in-CHRIST, but I won't waste any more time/bandwidth discussing any more garbage from that goofy, prevarication-filled site.

    [ May 22, 2006, 12:33 AM: Message edited by: Dr. Bob ]
     
  8. standingfirminChrist

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    We do not confess our sins to each other. We confess faults.

    I cannot forgive anyone of sins. Only God can do that. I can however, encourage one who is overtaken in a fault by letting them know I can counsel with them or pray for them.
     
  9. Linda64

    Linda64 New Member

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    robycop, I looked up Eph. 7:1 and it says nothing of sin, as you posted. As a matter of fact, it says nothing at all...BECAUSE IT'S NOT IN THE WORD OF GOD.

    (Is this another attempt by the MVs to add to the Word of God?)
     
  10. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    He meant 1:7.
     
  11. standingfirminChrist

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    even so, the greek word paraptoma that is translated both fault and sin, has other meanings.

    One is unintentional error.

    I can make an unintentional error at the Walmart by going in the wrong restroom (I am blind), but have I sinned? No, I was just overtaken in a fault.

    Someone would have to show me the way to the men's side of the restrooms. Restoring me to the right.

    The passage in Galatians 6 is correct in saying fault. Especially in light of David praying to God and saying 'against Thee and Thee only have I sinned.'
     
  12. Linda64

    Linda64 New Member

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    Oh really?

    Here is Ephesians 1:7 (KJV)

    In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace; (Ephesians 1:7)

    We sin against God--not man.

    Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest. (Psalms 51:4)

    The Christian is to confess his faults to his brethren (Jas 5:16) . The Greek word translated "fault" in Jas. 5:16 is paraptoma, which refers to "a side-slip, lapse, deviation, or error (Strong) . Elsewhere it is translated "fall" (Ro 11:11), "offence" (Ro 4:25), "trespass" (Mt 6:14), and "sin" (Eph 1:7). Many new translations (such as the NIV and NASV) erroneously read "sin" instead of "faults" in Jas. 5:16 because they follow the Westcott-Hort Greek text which replaces the word paraptoma with hamartia, the Greek word most commonly used for sin in the N.T. This, of course, gives support to the false Catholic idea of confessing one's sins to a man instead of directly to God.

    Way of Life Encyclopedia
     
  13. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    1Co 8:12 But when ye sinne so against the brethren, and wound their weake conscience, ye sinne against Christ.

    2Ch 6:22 If a man sinne against his neighbour, and an oath be layd vpon him, to make him sweare, and the oath come before thine Altar in this house:

    Mat 18:21 Then came Peter to him, and said, Lord, how oft shall my brother sinne against mee, and I forgiue him? till seuen times?

    You CAN sin against someone.
     
  14. standingfirminChrist

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    So David lied when he said to God 'against Thee and Thee only have I sinned?'
     
  15. standingfirminChrist

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    Either David was lying when he made that statement, or the sin of lying with Bathsheba and the sin of having Uriah killed was not against them, but against God.

    I believe it was against God. I think the picture that is painted is the sins that seem to be against man, are ultimately against God.
     
  16. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    I think David was writing a POEM in which he was able to express the gravity of his sin by use of literary techniques.

    Do you deny the God-breathed testimony of the APOSTLE PAUL in 1 Cor. 8:12?

    1Co 8:12 But when ye sinne so against the brethren, and wound their weake conscience, ye sinne against Christ.
     
  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    robycop, I looked up Eph. 7:1 and it says nothing of sin, as you posted. As a matter of fact, it says nothing at all...BECAUSE IT'S NOT IN THE WORD OF GOD.

    (Is this another attempt by the MVs to add to the Word of God?)
    </font>[/QUOTE]I GOOFED!!!!!!

    I meant "Eph. 1:7"

    No, it's not an atrempt to add to God's word...it's a simple goof by me. Unlike those who try to deny Erasmus made a goof, I will readily admit it when I goof. And being just a man, I'll goof s'more before all is said and done.
     
  18. StefanM

    StefanM Well-Known Member
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    I'm confused...

    I thought the accusation was that MVs "took away from the Word of God". . . now they're supposedly adding?
     
  19. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    We're getting away from fact in favor of pie-in-the sky guesswork again. The facts are, the Greek reads "paraptoma", which the KJV renders "sin" in some places & "faults" in others. And an archaic meaning for "faults" is "sins".

    Now, Linda 64, let's dispose of that "Way of Life" goofup.

    It says:
    That doesn't mean squat in the face of this:

    1Pe 2:20 "For what glory [is it], if , when ye be buffeted for your faults(Strong's # 264) , ye shall take it patiently...."

    Guess what Greek word is translated "faults"? If ya said "paraptoma", you fail to win the kewpie doll. That's right...it's hamartano! The KJV uses the words 'sins' & faults' interchangeably because that was proper in 17th C. English, so if the NIV is wrong, so is the KJV!

    Please take the time to check out the VERACITY of those KJVO articles before believing them. I have yet to see one that doesn't contain at least SOME falsehood. Please understand, Linda, that I'm not making fun of YOU; I'm pointing out the errors in that silly article, which I read years ago, researched, & found to be mostly false.

    There's simply no defense for the false KJVO myth.
     
  20. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    It's the KJVO "Guess Of The Day", Stefan.
     
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