KJVO Lies

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In KJV, verses 5 & 6 read:
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God

I sat down with a concordance and Greek lexicon and came up with a translation that fits other new translations, like the NASB rendering:
5 Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped
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How is it that you arrived at the word "grasped" from the word "robbery"? Those two words do not only not convey the same meaning, but they convey the wrong idea to the reader. Using the word "grasped", conveys that Jesus was NOT equal with God when he was a man (existed in the form of God) and that he was not taking hold of it, or taking posession of it while he was a man. The word "robbery" indicates that He already WAS EQUAL with God as a man(being in the form of God) and was not "taking away from" His Godhood from becoming a man and as a servant of God. The word "robbery" is not only the appropriate and accurate rendering, but also conveys the Deity of Jesus Christ as a man. The word "grasped" leaves the reader in doubt and confusion as to the deity of Christ as a man, and this ATTACKS the doctrines of the deity of our precious Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. "Robbery" is not an archaic word, you can find it right in your dictionary. My children would understand the intended meaning of this verse with "robbery", and not so with the word "grasped", and if they did understand the word "grasped" they would come away with the wrong understanding.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle said "How is it that you arrived at the word "grasped" from the word "robbery""

Because the Greek work is "harpagmos", which is derived from "harpazo", the word translated "catch up", "take by force", "catch away", "pluck", "catch", and "pull" in the KJV. The word carries a connotation of seizing, like when someone (e.g. a "robber") quickly and forcefully snatches something. Christ did not try to seize forcefully equality with God - he already had it. Instead, he made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.

 

I believe that is what the KJV says.

He thought it not "seizing forcefully"(robbery) "equality" (to be equal) with God:

Round and round we go. The 'original Greek' word for "large" is blah blah and it means 'literally' "great in relative size or mass, or big, not small."

What is the Greek word for futility? I bet I can tell you what it means: It means "futility."

Lacy

 

Eutychus,

Welcome to the Baptist Board. It is indeed a pleasure to meet a new member who is able to think.

 

Lacy,

If you had spent 25 years of your life studying the Greek and Hebrew languages, I might respect these opinions. But...

 

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Why did God give us His Word in Greek, Lacy, if He did not intend for us to study it and faithfully translate it (as accurately as possible) into every language?
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Why did God give us His words in our very own languague of English and then intend for us to study it in Greek? To have you all now telling us that what He has said isn't really what He said?

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Why did God give us His words in our very own languague of English and then intend for us to study it in Greek?
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What is the difference between this and reinspiration?

 

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If you had spent 25 years of your life studying the Greek and Hebrew languages, I might respect these opinions. But...
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No, but you and others here most certainly do not know nor understand the Greek, Hebrew and English languages as well as the KJB translators did. And based upon the scholars of today choice for that word, and as I have shown, is NOT the best choice of words in our language, and to which also attacks the deity of our Lord Jesus Christ as a man.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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What is the difference between this and reinspiration?
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I recommend you study what inspire, guidance, guide and providence means, and then you will understand my position. I wrote another post explaining, on another thread if you desire to look at it.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

We should ALL study the Original languages, not to do so would limit our understanding. If God chose and inspired His Word in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, then it would be a mistake not to follow His lead, in studying His Word in the very same languages He chose to inspire.
Love in the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior,
Bro Kevin

 

Apparently michelle thinks God is limited to guiding everyone else in only the way that she deems appropriate.

 

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We should ALL study the Original languages, not to do so would limit our understanding. If God chose and inspired His Word in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, then it would be a mistake not to follow His lead, in studying His Word in the very same languages He chose to inspire.
Love in the Lord Jesus Christ our Savior,
Bro Kevin
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Not if by studying of the origional languages one comes away with understanding that is different/contrary to what God has already provided to us in our own language and different from the beliefs/teachings from the history of the believing churches. Otherwise, one is left to believe the interpretations of men above that of what God has provided already in our language and opens one up to being carried away with every wind of doctrine (Eph.4, 2 Peter 3). You all continue to turn to the Greek and Hebrew languages as your rescue (knowing full well that the common person does not know it), yet while you do this, you deny God's divine guidance concerning his words for us in our own language. I believe God, not man. I am to believe that God allowed standing errors in his words of truth in my own language? You can believe that. However I can not, nor will I, because I know the Lord has control concerning his words and I believe what He has said and revealed in and concerning his words. We find our strength and safety in his words - from the words of the wicked and deceptions of the world (3:1).

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Of course we continually ask salient questions:
WHICH KJV was the right one?
WHAT did God give before 1611?
WHY is the AV the only English one given by God?
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Look at the evidence with faith first in the providence of God concerning his words and his people.


Do you understand the providence of God? Why do you deny us this truth concerning His words in our own language, and then false accuse us of being unbiblical and heretical when it is confirmed/revealed in the very English scriptures we posess in our very hands today, and generations of English believers?

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Michelle,
Look at the evidence with faith first in the providence of God concerning his words and his people.


Do you understand the providence of God? Why do you deny us this truth concerning His words in our own language, and then false accuse us of being unbiblical and heretical when it is confirmed/revealed in the very English scriptures we posess in our very hands today, and generations of English believers?


I agree, why do you do that?

 

So you agree with Ruckman that the KJV translation corrects the text from which it was translated?

If you and another person were quoting scripture and disagreed on the wording of a verse, what would you do? Would you insist that you were right no matter what? No. You would open the Bible and see what the text was. Would it matter how many people in the room agreed with one side or the other? No. Only what the text said.

That's the way it is with the Bible. God inspired the text through specifically chosen men and by extension in specifically chosen languages. Any dispute about differences between translations must appeal to the original language texts.

Doctrine does not come from the church or tradition. It comes from the scripture.

If churches down through history believed something that we later find to be in disagreement with scripture then we are in no way to judge the scripture by the belief... the belief must always be judged by the scripture.

Interesting that you would appeal to the "beliefs/teachings from the history of the believing churches" when your belief in the perfection of wording in the KJV is a very, very recent aberration.

Best case- you can point to people who were ignorant of the history of the church and ancient world about 100 or so years ago that simply didn't know that the Bible was originally given in another language.

Worst case- your belief originates with a 1930's SDA.

Either way, it is not the historical, othodox, fundamental, Bible belieiving, Bible trusting, submitted to biblical authority view on God's Word- KJV or otherwise.

 

"Our own language" is not 400 year old Elizabethan English. In fact, it was not the common tongue of folks in the 1600's either.

Because it is not confirmed or reveals in scripture that there is a specific translation that supercedes others. Requiring such a belief is adding to scripture, and as such, qualifies by the definition of many as heresy. In the very least, it qualifies as false doctrine. It doesn't matter if you're KJVO, NIVO, NASO, etc. The very concept of there being one sole authoritative translation for all people is completely unscriptural.

 

The truth is that you know absolutely nothing at all about either the knowledge and understanding of the translators of KJV or the knowledge and understanding of those of us who are opposing you in your false statements on the BB. All that you do is babble, and babble, and babble, making one false statement after another, bringing disgrace to both our Savior and those for whom He died, and making a mockery of this message board and everything that is called Baptist. Do you have any idea how much damage you are doing to our Savior’s Church by making false statements?