Koine Greek, which is "common Greek."

Have you ever thought why God gave His NT in Koine Greek rather than Classical Greek?

How that God allowed Alexander the Great to basically conquer the whole world and spread the Greek language and culture. Due to this, Classical Greek slowly turned into "Koine" Greek which is what we can call, "common" Greek.

Why is this important?

Well, when Christ spoke to those listening to Him, or when Paul penned down his letters, what kind of language did he use? Did he speak clearly (grammatically speaking)? Yes, they all did.

1 Corinthians 14:8 For if the trumpet give an uncertain sound, who shall prepare himself to the battle?

Where am I going with this you may ask? Well, I'm just asking those who adamantly KJV-only, did God "put it this way" in these verses?

James 3:2 For in many things we offend all. If any man offend not in word, the same is a perfect man, and able also to bridle the whole body.

What is that verse talking about? When I was KJVonly, I used to think it meant we as preachers offend a lot of peopl with our preaching. However, when I payed closer attention to it in the NASB, it became clear!

James 3:2 For we all stumble in many ways. If anyone does not stumble in what he says, he is a perfect man, able to bridle the whole body as well.

There we go, now the verse finally matches the context! You see, the above verse wasn't in the "language of the people."

Same thing goes with such verses as,
2 Corinthians 8:1 Moreover, brethren, we **do you to wit** of the grace of God bestowed on the churches of Macedonia;
Luke 17:9 Doth he thank that servant because he did the things that were commanded him? I **trow not**.
1 Corinthians 10:25 Whatsoever is sold in the **shambles**, that eat, asking no question for conscience sake:
2 Samuel 5:23 And when David enquired of the LORD, he said, Thou shalt not go up; but **fetch a compass** behind them, and come upon them over against the mulberry trees.

I realize that the Bible says that the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God (1 Cor. 2:14), however that isn't *talking about grammar or forms of English*. Also, Peter did say parts of Paul were hard to understand, but he didn't say that because of his grammar or form of his language,

2 Peter 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

My goal is not to dethrone the KJV or to shake people's faith in God's Word, but to show you *why* many people use and should use some of the conservative "modern" versions which we have today. Thanks for your time, now I'll stop typing,