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Featured KVJ Is Not Literal, but Functional Equivalent

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Reformed1689, Jan 27, 2020.

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  1. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    #1 Reformed1689, Jan 27, 2020
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  2. Reformed

    Reformed Well-Known Member
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    My introductory Greek class used Mounce's "Basics of Biblical Greek". Textbook aside, I think he is wrong on his opinion of the KJV even though the KJV is not my daily reader.
     
    #2 Reformed, Jan 27, 2020
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  3. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Yeah I was a little surprised as I was reading to see it listed in that grouping.
     
    #3 Reformed1689, Jan 27, 2020
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  4. Reformed

    Reformed Well-Known Member
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    I am thinking more about this. I have always considered the KJV as a formal equivalence translation, not a dynamic equivalence. Mounce makes a good point that all translations are interpretive, it is the type of interpretive steps that makes a translation as word-for-word as possible or thought-for-thought.
     
    #4 Reformed, Jan 27, 2020
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  5. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I've heard that the KJV translators sought to make the text poetic as well which would lend it to being more functional.
     
    #5 Reformed1689, Jan 27, 2020
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  6. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    Did anyone figure out what Mounce's point was, for saying:

    "They was not marked for gender in Elizabethan English (check out Shakespeare) "
     
    #6 Jerome, Jan 27, 2020
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  7. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    #7 Jerome, Jan 27, 2020
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  8. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    That he has changed his mind or can't make up his mind?
    Can anyone tell the time sequence on these? All I see is a month and day of month, which no year?
     
    #8 rlvaughn, Jan 27, 2020
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  9. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    That the pronoun "they" was used in Elizabethan English/Shakespeare for either singular or plural, so that it was used instead of he or she to keep from using a gender pronoun. Or something like that.
     
    #9 rlvaughn, Jan 27, 2020
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  10. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    #10 Jerome, Jan 27, 2020
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  11. Ziggy

    Ziggy Well-Known Member
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    Where does Mounce place the NKJV then?
     
    #11 Ziggy, Jan 27, 2020
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  12. Reformed

    Reformed Well-Known Member
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    Probably the same as the KJV.

    Sent from my Pixel 2 XL using Tapatalk
     
    #12 Reformed, Jan 27, 2020
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  13. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Every English Bible translation MUST use some formal equivalence to make sense in English due to language differences.
     
    #13 robycop3, Jan 28, 2020
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  14. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    You meant functional equivalence.
     
    #14 Rippon2, Jan 28, 2020
  15. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    #15 Reformed1689, Jan 28, 2020
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  16. alexander284

    alexander284 Well-Known Member

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    Bill Mounce is all over the place, isn't he? Lol
     
    #16 alexander284, Jan 28, 2020
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  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    There are places where it does indeed translate functionally into English, but so does even the nas, so would still be overall a formal translation!
     
    #17 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2020
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    All translation use a bit of formal/functional in their process, but the question would be on which side do they mainly end up being on?
     
    #18 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2020
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Wouldn't the Nrsv/Csb/Niv 2011 all be in same camp?
     
    #19 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2020
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The big question is how does it the majority of the time choose to translate into English?
     
    #20 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2020
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