Logic and the Bible

Some believers consider the Textus Receptus to be a "restored" text since it adds a number of readings from the Latin Vulgate that are not found in the majority of the existing Greek manuscripts.

 

I do that cause it is hard to quote a 'Quote' made on BB. But a // quote can easly be passed along.

 

I know you're asking someone else, but no translation is inspired.

Although The Message is allegedly a translation, it reads more like a paraphrase. Just compare it side by side with other versions.

As for "Jesus" being "replaced" by God, this is not what happened. It depends on the manuscripts being used and how to translate certain words. No one "replaced" the word "jesus" with "God."

AJ, you seem unaware of the various manuscripts available and translation theories, as well as difficulties with the original languages.

 

Ed, both? Do you trust the maximum disagreement of wording? Please answer this question -- yes or no?

Can the disagreement of word variations between the Textus Received and the Critical Text be equally verbally inspired of God? Please answer this question -- yes or no?

 

I went to a large library at a liberal bible seminary and researched many books there. I found Hoskier's research on this one there.

 

Originally Posted by Ed Edwards:
// Both

Read my LIPS://

Askjo: // Ed, both? Do you trust the maximum disagreement of wording? Please answer this question -- yes or no? //

(BTW, 'read my lips' is a metaphor. And equivalent metaphor is 'see what my hands are saying' or 'look at my hands when I'm talking to you'. BTW: God used a Donkey to speak - but I've never seen a Donkey signing ;-) ) So I think that God uses a fancier way of communicating with the deaf than the hearing :thumbs:

Interesting, you disbelieve what I have proved and can't even understand what I have said. The short answer is YES, even though you ask what is obviously a loaded question. Both (actually all 4) Bible source families contain AND are the Written Word of God preserved inerrant and error-less by Divine Providence fulfilling the Word of God that God would bring it to pass unto ALL GENERATIONS which is also ONE GENERATION - the generation of the Church Age, age of gentiles, etc. Ed notes that in this case 'maxium disagreement' runs about 1.4% of the total OT & NT text. Sorry, most schools mark 98.6% as A+

Askjo: // Can the disagreement of word variations between the Textus Received and the Critical Text be equally verbally inspired of God? Please answer this question -- yes or no? //

YES.
And only a true BIBLE CHANGER would believe otherwise. I meant it (if you understand it or not is NOT my concern). I only preach the GOOD NEWS that Christ Died so You don't have to pay the Eternal Death Penalty for Your sins. If your god cannot preserve the word in all valid editions (Greek & English & any other language) then your god is a wimp god. My God, the Creator of the Universe, is omnipotent ALL POWERFUL) My God isn't limited by one and only one edition of one and only one Translation in one and only one Language.

The Lord God who had 7,000 men who had not bowed the knee to the false Baal in the day of Elijah -- has Millions of Bible Student/Prayer Warriers today who find God's word in dozens of different Bible Translations, different Bible Versions, and different languages.

BTW, anybody interested in the documentation of 11 variations of 12 studied? these are KJVs only that I have access unto (either electronic or paper) -- no Modern Versions other than the KJV were used in that study.

Originally Posted by ajg1959:
// Ed, have you read "The Message"? Is it inspired by God? //
No, I have not read all of 'THE MESSAGE'.
IMHO it is inspired by God.
In the opinion of those whom I trust a lot, 'THE MESSAGE' is invalid. I don't use it, I have lots of valid Bibles I use.


Originally Posted by ajg1959:
//Ed, in some translations, the word "Jesus" is replaced by "God" in alot of places.
Do you think that this could skew the meaning of the text?
I do. //

Me also. Yet I have a method of resolving the dispute. I assume "God has given us through His Divine Preservation both readings". What does God intend for us to do, assuming BOTH ARE FROM GOD. Others do not have a method of resolving such issues. So while some people are writhing around in the floor of confusion -- My ilk and I will be working for the Lord with clear minds -- instead of painting ourselves into an illogical corner :-(

But he, different strokes for different folks, eh?

 

My God does not make 650+ mistakes, nor does He make 19 mistakes (not even 1 mistake for that matter). So, in terms of inspiration: either these "disagreements" are NOT errors as far as God is concerned (which means its irrelevent how many there are), or the "disagreements" ARE errors which means there is no trustworthy printed critical texts.

If inspiration can only be applied to an entire text (and God doesn't inspire any mistakes), then they are equally uninspired..

 

Marcia, I am very aware as I have looked into using different translations.

And yes, some modern translations do replace the word "Jesus" with "God"

I have yet to study a MV that didnt have some influence of the writer's chosen denomination. They all seem to have a message based on the writer's influence, moreso than God's.

And I realize that KJV is also a translation, but I have many ancestors that used the KJV as a guide for life, and lived a Godly life....why change now?

But again, let me say, I dont own any MVs in book form, but I do have several MVs on my computer to use for comparision and study. I have seen many times that some of the MVs contradict or change the meaning of the passage in the KJV, and they cant both be right...so, when it comes to contradiction, I take the message or meaning of the KJV as truth.

Maybe I am wrong, but I have to beleive one or the other....I choose the KJV

AJ

PS....you have a very polite way of telling someone that they aint too smart.

 

Read Ed's signature, He claims that ALL translations are inspired by God.

It would be nice if we could just choose the bible and denomination that "fits us", and still be right with God.

But when there are two different meanings given by two different translations, only one can be right.

God doesnt give us options. His truth is constant and final.

AJ

 

Please use your computer program and show us one or two. Thanks!

 

Ed's signature (without all his formating) --

All VALID English Language Bibles
Collectively and Individually
contain and are
the Inerrant and Perfect
Written Word of God
preserved by Divine Appointment
for the generation in which they are translated.​

I don't see the word "inspired" anywhere.

 

ajg1959: // But when there are two different meanings given by two different translations, only one can be right. //

Your statement is illogical, it is a logical error:
Here are some other posibilities

1. both are right, and one is more correct than the other
2. both are wrong, and one is less wrong than the other
3. both are right and correct
4. both are wrong and in error

Prove from the scripture that 'only one can be right'.

I have proved from the scriptures that if you assume that God preserved His Written Scripture (the assumption is based also on the Bible) then you must come to the conclusion:

 

That statement has 'inspired' written all over it!

inspired = Inerrant and Perfect

so I could say:

All VALID English Language Bibles
Collectively and Individually
contain and are
the inspired
Written Word of God
preserved by Divine Appointment
for the generation in which they are translated.

If you translate the inspired written Word of God your translation will be the inspired written word of God also.

 

Here's a verse that is different in various versions. Which is correct?


KJV - Phl 2:6 -
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:


NKJV - Phl 2:6 -
who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,


NLT - Phl 2:6 -
Though he was God, he did not demand and cling to his rights as God.


NIV - Phl 2:6 -
Who, being in very nature* God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
Footnote:
* Or in the form of


ESV - Phl 2:6 -
who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,


NASB - Phl 2:6 -
who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

 

OK, I phrased it wrongly....your signature doesnt say "inspired" it says "Perfect"

If one translation contradicts another, then BOTH cannot be perfect.

Yes, God preserved His Word, man is the one distorting it.

AJ

 

God loves a cheerful giver.

where dis that statement come from?

 

Exactly my point Amy.

All of them are different so all of them cannot be "perfect"

AJ

 

All of them collectively are more correct than each individually.

 

Amen, Brother Ed -- Right on!

To bad very few can TRUST, Believe, and Hope that God is capable of preserving His Written Word inerrant, without flaw, prefect, & preserved

 

That is not possible.

Some say Christ is equal to God.

Some say Christ is not equal to God.


Two opposing ideas cannot both be correct.