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We do NOT practice open communion, so only church members are invited.Originally posted by geneo:
Who is invited to participate in the Lords Supper when our church practices "open Communion"?
A professed believer living in open adultery should not even be in this situation. He should have been confronted by other believers and/or the church leadership, and if he did not repent, he should not be in the church much less participating in the Lord's Supper. This would apply, I would think, to the person under church disciplien who is being restored but not restored yet (however the church does that).Originally posted by PastorGreg:
So, Tony, a professed believer living in open adultery should be allowed to participate? How about someone who was under church discipline and had been excluded from their fellowship?
I have written you in my letter not to associate with sexually immoral people -- not at all meaning the people of this world who are immoral, or the greedy and swindlers, or idolaters. In that case you would have to leave this world. But now I am writing you that you must not associate with anyone who calls himself a brother but is sexually immoral or greedy, an idolater or a slanderer, a drunkard or a swindler. With such a man do not even eat.
1 Cor 5.9-11
Greg,So, Tony, a professed believer living in open adultery should be allowed to participate? How about someone who was under church discipline and had been excluded from their fellowship?
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Are you saying that the writings of the Apostles, which were historically to those churches mentioned, have no impact on your local church? When you study it is important to know who the Apostle was originally writing to and what was going on in that church, but the truth shared was for all the church. If this were not true the New Testament would for the most part be meaningless to us today. I don't think that is what you are saying.Then please reconcile the distinction of those local, visible, and separate bodies of baptized believers referred to in the New Testament. Were they all one church, or were they separate churches?
Did Christ have John write a letter to the church, or was it letters to the seven churches in Asia?
Oh I'm sorry, it must of been another MTA who said,I have said nothing about the writings of the Apostles or the impact thoses writings have on those churches.
Did Christ have John write a letter to the church, or was it letters to the seven churches in Asia?
You may not like to call it the universal church, but God does have His Church and it is not divided by walls, denominations or tradition. Man makes those divisions, not God. When the Holy Spirit spoke to John concerning His message to the Churches, it was not just to those specific churches, but to the church.I simply stated that there is no single "church" in the universal sense. We serve in local, visible churches, just the way they did in John's time. Christ referenced individual churches in the letters John wrote.
We do labor as distinctive bodies today, by our choice, not by the Lords. Paul said " There is one body and one Spirit...one Lord, one faith, one baptism..." Eph. 4:4-5 That we have made divisions because of our differences does not negate that the Lord only has one Church. Notice Paul did not say we will be, in the future, one body, but that we are one body.When time ends, we shall all be called out and there will be one body, but for now, we labor as distinctive bodies of baptized believers.