Luke 4:14-21: A whole 'nuther question....

Yeah, but silver purifed seven times in a furnace of earth can show the all the presuppositions as error in the purported mv's.

 

So are you saying that the KJV was purified seven times?

 

No, but you'd like for anyone to think that now wouldn't you?

So what is your presupposition that Acts 8:32,33 is somehow dis-similar in thought from Isaiah 53: 6,7?

Is it still this Greek to English differing from Hebrew to English non-sense yall keep spouting? Yes, I'm certain it is.

The Word of God is preserved in the thought the KJB inspires one to have, therefore it is inspired.

I recently read aloud Psalm 78:36 to a friend of mine from the NasV. he replied rather quickly, "God is never deceived, what you just read wasn't from the Bible now is it?"

I showed him where the reading came from, he said, "No wonder so many are against the NasV."

Now show me where the KJB is wrong in comparison in Acts and Isaiah? You can't.

 

Were you honest enough to tell him that the KJV translates the same Hebrew word as "deceive"? Did you ask him if God could be flattered- that his vanity could be appealed to?

 

Yes, I did allow him to see the definitions. He said, "But God was never deceived."

Then why,I must ask, do you suppose his "vanity" was something needed to be appealed to? Are you sugesting the friend of mine is vain?

Now answer my question to the illusion you have that Acts and isaiah are dis-similar?

 

I was not talking about your friend. Flattery is: "The act or practice of flattering; the act of pleasing by artiful commendation or compliments; adulation; false, insincere, or excessive praise."

It depends on the idea that the object is vain enough to believe an excessive compliment. God is not vain and it is impossible to excessively compliment Him. BTW, if the KJV translators had intended it in any sort of positive way they would have used "praise" not "flatter".

 

That's it!!!! You've got it (almost!!!)) It's about the message - the thought. God's word is preserved in ALL of our translations insofar as they transmit the message of the Word.

 

But when the thought process is led astray from the correct reading then it is not the Word of God.

When one is flattered, it is not that the person is deceived by that flattery. Learn the difference. Until you learn this difference you will continue to wrest the scriptures.

Now, deal with Acts 8:32,33 and Isaiah 53: 7,8.

 

Certainly. Compare the wording of the two passages:

7 he IS BROUGHT as a LAMB to the slaughter,
and AS a SHEEP BEFORE HER SHEARERS IS DUMB,
so HE OPENETH not his mouth.
8 HE WAS TAKEN FROM PRISON AND FROM JUDGMENT:
and who shall declare his generation?
for HE WAS CUT OFF FROM THE LAND OF THE LIVING:
(Isa. 53:7-8, KJV)

32 THE PLACE OF THE SCRIPTURE WHICH HE READ was this,
He WAS LED as a SHEEP to the slaughter;
and LIKE a LAMB DUMB BEFORE HIS SHEARER,
so OPENED HE not his mouth:
33 IN HIS HUMILIATION HIS JUDGMENT WAS TAKEN AWAY:
and who shall declare his generation?
for HIS LIFE IS TAKEN FROM THE EARTH.
(Ac. 8:32-33, KJV)

Please note the differences. A "sheep" and a "lamb" are not the same thing. "He was taken from prison and from judgment" is not the same thing as "in his humiliation his judgment was taken away."

What we have are two different written versions of the same passage, both of them "scripture." So the Scriptures themselves again clearly sanction the use of different versions, and clearly dispense with the unbiblical notion of "One Version Onlyism."

 

Afraid NOT. You're just trying to say this does. I don't see the Scripture say that anywhere. I'm afraid you just don't understand the passage.

Both passages give the same exact thought. "As a lamb, like a sheep, as a sheep as a lamb" There is no difference.

Concoction of mv's all over again.

 

Ditto

 

Precepts, you are beginning to sound like you support MVs.

Although the words are different, the meassage is the same.

 

Double standard anyone? It's okay for the KJV to support different versions, but no one else?

Arch points it out well, Scripture clearly sanctions the use of different versions.

 

First of all, if you don't know the difference between a sheep and a lamb, I'd suggest you stay away from raising any sort of livestock. (I'd also hold off on using the phrase, "Behold the sheep of God..." )

Secondly, even if the two passages give the exact same *thought*, they don't use the exact same *words*. When two written Bibles give the exact same thought using different words, that's referred to as being "two different versions."

Bottom line: the KJV itself gives two different versions of the same Isaiah passage. So much for the notion that "God only gave one Bible" in English.

 

Ah ha!

Another profound statement by Bro Precepts!

The Word of God is preserved in the thought the KJB inspires one to have, therefore it is inspired.

Yes! Yes! Yes!

This is a very important point. The fact that the KJV (or in my opinion most of the MVs) gives the same quote slightly differently shows that some variability of verbage DOES occur. This is not a problem - more to the point - it's evidently what God intended us to have! It is the understanding of the words on paper in the heart of a believer (under the guidance of the Spirit) that is God's truly inspired word.

Now I think Precepts and I part ways on whether the MVs are similarly valuable in this respect!

 

I'm wondering if the next step in the KJVO:kjbo myth is "Matthew Onlyist" or "Mark Onlyist" or "Luke Onlyist" or "John Onlyist" Did someone say, "things that are different are not the same?"