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'Marginal' translations

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by franklinmonroe, Feb 6, 2008.

  1. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

    Aug 2, 2006
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    Perhaps it may concern some individuals to learn that Bible translators typically do not strictly limit themselves to a single source text. For example, how did we get "lie" here? (Deuteronomy 28:30, KJV) --
    Thou shalt betroth a wife, and another man shall lie with her: thou shalt build an house, and thou shalt not dwell therein: thou shalt plant a vineyard, and shalt not gather the grapes thereof.​

    The Hebrew word rendered in English here is shakab (Strong's #7901) meaning to physically lie down, or figuratively just to rest; also it can mean to lie down for sexual relations, or to lie down in death (yet another euphemistic use?). But this is not the actual Hebrew word directly out of the Masoretic text, but rather it seems the KJV translators have substituted a 'qere' (a scribal reading from the margin).

    I believe the word you will find include within (the 'ketiv') the MT is shagal (Strong's #7693) which means to violate, or ravish. This word appears only 4 times in the OT. It seems to be more appropriate in the context of Deuteronomy 28:30. Notice the other three occurrences of this word in the KJV --
    Their children also shall be dashed to pieces before their eyes; their houses shall be spoiled, and their wives ravished (Isaiah 13:16).

    Lift up thine eyes unto the high places, and see where thou hast not been lien with. In the ways hast thou sat for them, as the Arabian in the wilderness; and thou hast polluted the land with thy whoredoms and with thy wickedness. (Jeremiah 3:2)

    For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished;... (Zechariah 14:2a) ​

    If you'd like to see another source where the 'kethiv' and 'qere' of the Hebrew is shown go here (where "K"= Kethiv and "Q"= Qere) --
  2. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

    Jul 2, 2005
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    It all has to do with the verb tense. "Lie" is appropiate.

    To "violate" her suggests he took her unwillingly. She may have been fully willing.

    To "ravish" her doesn't give an accurate meaning either, since it could have been she that ravished him.
  3. EdSutton

    EdSutton New Member

    Jan 9, 2006
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    Marginal interpretations, maybe, as opposed to marginal translations??