Mary's firstborn

Textus Receptus
1:20 ταῦτα δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐνθυμηθέντος ἰδού, ἄγγελος κυρίου κατ᾽ ὄναρ ἐφάνη αὐτῷ λέγων, Ἰωσὴφ υἱὸς Δαβίδ, μὴ φοβηθῇς παραλαβεῖν Μαριὰμ τὴν γυναῖκά σου· τὸ γὰρ ἐν αὐτῇ γεννηθὲν ἐκ πνεύματός ἐστιν ἁγίου

And on his thinking of these things, lo, a messenger of the Lord in a dream appeared to him, saying, 'Joseph, son of David, thou mayest not fear to receive Mary thy wife, for that which in her was begotten (out of spirit is holy) and she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus, for he shall save his people from their sins.' And all this hath come to pass, that it may be fulfilled that was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, 'Lo, the virgin shall conceive, and she shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel,' which is, being interpreted 'With us he is God.' Matt 1:20-23

And Joseph, having risen from the sleep, did as the messenger of the Lord directed him, and received his wife, and did not know her till she brought forth her son -- the first-born, and he called his name Jesus. 24,25


Was there a way, that which had been conceived out of spirit and was holy, could have been brought forth in iniquity?

If yes, would that have effected his name?

 

Could Mary's firstborn have been brought forth in iniquity?

 

As in Psalms 51:5 NKJV, ESV. NASB, RSV, ASV, YLT, and DBY.