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Matt. 19:9 - Remarriage allowed?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Pastork, Apr 28, 2003.

  1. Pastork

    Pastork New Member

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    I am currently involved in a study of the Scriptures on the issue of divorce and remarriage. I would appreciate any input you can give on the proper understanding of Matthew 19:9.

    NKJ Matthew 19:9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery."

    1. What does 'porneia' ("sexual immorality") mean? Does it refer to adultery only in this context, or to a broader range of sexual sin?

    2. Does Jesus intend to allow for remarriage in the case of a divorce that is permitted on the grounds of 'porneia'?
     
  2. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    "porneia" is too broad a word to nail down one particular definition, except by context. It's where we get the English word "pornographic".

    Matthew uses it as the term for "fornication" as found in the KJB, also for the word "adultry". Both are closely linked to one another, and literally, "fornication" is adultry as pre-marital sex when the offenders are not the "choice" of the Lord for that mate.


    As far as the question of whether or not re-marriage is allowed after divorce, NO! Reconciliation is the Lord's will in any case. Seperation in an abusive relationship is immediately advised. Many will relate to Jeremiah 3 to justify divorce saying the LORD, Himself divorced Israel for playing the harlot/ adultress. You'll find in the KJB/ The Word of God, He only gave her a "bill" of divorcement. Just as our judicial system is set up, a "bill" is first introduced before it is either passed or vetoed as a law. That is where the key is, the LORD announced His intention to divorce Israel, but He left it up to her to repent and be reconciled unto Him. Now if we claim to be Christians, I think we should follow the Lord's example, don't you? We are given the ministry of reconciliation, right? Man has passed into law just as Moses did, due to the hardness of man's heart, allowed a divorce for irreconciliable differences. I'm trying to keep all this simple, so bear with me.

    If God divorced Israel, then she would be allowed to marry another, according to man's theology, but wouldn't that be condoning sin on God's part? Then if He divorced her and married Judah, would not the LORD then be committing adultry?

    The LORD cannot sin! There's your answer.

    Divorce is the major "brick" in the wall of separation between the rites of Holy Matrimony. Marriage is a covenant, it is ordained of God. Anything ordained of God is holy! In the case of breaking the marriage vows, divorce being the biggest breach, "it is better to have never made a vow than to break a vow".

    There is no excuse for divorce, no "exception clause", only room for reconciliation! Aren't you glad we aren't divorced from God? We are become the spiritual Israel, and are betrothed unto the Son! He's coming for His Bride! The doctrine of Eternal Life should be considered to help explain. We can't lose our salvation, we will be "married" to Jesus, His blood washes us clean and has bought us, redeemed us, reconciled us to God! As a chaste virgin before the Lord, without spot or blemish! Can you imagine that!?!

    You will find the ONLY permissable reason for remarriage is death of the spouse as in Romans 7. Some would ask do I believe in divorce? NO! Murder? Yes! [​IMG] Some of us men deserve to be shot by our wives! [​IMG]

    To answer those who have been divorced and re-married: I John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

    It's all throught the Blood of the Lamb!

    In Christ!

    Brother Ricky

    Special note:

    **Please don't anyone misunderstand me, I know divorce is a very touchy subject. Much anguish and pain have resulted in many marriages. My heart goes out to all those who've been through a hurtful divorce. Also, I know many feel it is the best thing that they ever did, but then we should be reminded that we were never to have been unequally yoked in the begining.

    [ April 28, 2003, 11:34 PM: Message edited by: Istherenotacause ]
     
  3. wizofoz

    wizofoz New Member

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    And what do you mean by that?
     
  4. Pastork

    Pastork New Member

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    Istherenotacause,

    You have said that "There is no excuse for divorce, no 'exception clause', only room for reconciliation!" However, Jesus plainly does make an exception when He says "except for sexual immorality." The question is whether or not He intends the exception to apply only to divorce or to the issue of remarriage. What I am asking is whether any here think that Jesus intends to say that anyone who divorces and remarries "except for sexual immorality" commits adultery, thus allowing remarriage if the divorce was on the ground of porneia. That is, that the remarried person is not committing adultery if he has been divorced due to his/her spouse's sexual immorality.

    Pastork
     
  5. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    The only reason anyone gets a divorce is due to sin, it's NEVER the "exception" to the rule, so it must be confessed as sin to get forgiveness, that's Biblically elementary, my dear wiz. ;)

    Wouldn't you agree that the Lord commanded us to NOT be unequally yoked? Isn't breaking the commandemnt of the Lord a sin? Doesn't sin need to be confessed unto the Lord to be forgiven?

    Do you follow me now? :confused:
     
  6. Primitive Baptist

    Primitive Baptist New Member

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    Jesus taught that if a man or woman divorces and marries another except for fornication, he or she commits adultery. Those who say there are no exceptions, must charge God with committing adultery because He divorced Israel for spiritual fornication and married the church. Is God an adulterer? God forbid!
     
  7. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    To answer Pastork,

    follow the train of thought on that word "except", Jesus tells us that "exception" was only allowed by Moses, and the reason Moses allowed it was due to the hardness of man's heart.
     
  8. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Go back and read Jeremiah 3 all over again, if you have read it to begin with, you'll find that the Lord only gave Israel a "bill" of divorcement, He didn't divorce her, she repents daily as we speak! You charge the Lord with folly, sir. God FORBID!
     
  9. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    Primitive Baptist - you made several leaps of thought to teach something.

    1. God married Israel.
    2. Christ is the espoused bridegroom to the church.
    3. The church is not Israel (here is a great example of how bad theology corrupts other areas).

    Istherenotacause - I must warn you, if you continue, you will be a mean, hateful, selfish, unloving, uncaring, angry, it is fun to beat your wife, O.J. killed Nicole for good reason, dominate person. That is about half the names I have been called in these threads. If you don't have the endurance for this, stop now. I mean this with much love toward you here.

    If you persist, some will come here and tell their stories and then blast you for being the unloving hothead who just hasn't been alive long enough to see pain in marriage.

    PastorK - Jesus was interpreting the Law in that text. The fornication that the Jews would have known of (in its context) is that which is found in Lev. 18 & 19. Those are the chapters in the Law that specify sexual relations.

    Do you desire to live under Moses?
     
  10. Pastork

    Pastork New Member

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    Istherenotacause,

    You are correct in stating that Jesus was referring to why Moses gave the exception that he gave in Matt. 19:8, but I would point out to you that Matt. 19:9 begins with Jesus words "And I say to you." Jesus is giving His own exception in verse 9, an exception which is a great deal more strict than that which Moses had given, but which allows for divorce in the case of porneia.

    Pastork
     
  11. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    Here we go...

    Jesus said that from the beginning, it (divorce) was not so. What, they didn't have problems back then? Of course they did. Still, it was NOT SO.

    Moses came along and penned God's instruction to the entire nation (which is made up of lost and redeemed). Under this condition (and only in a certain circumstance) could divorce even happen. So it was extremely strict and regulated even according to Moses.

    Jesus went back to God's original order (because the Law was about to be done away with).

    Btw, I know that O.J. killed Nicole.
     
  12. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    Nope, Jesus gave his interpretation that was contrary to what the Jews had heard espoused by the pharisees (see Matt. 5:27-32).

    Also, if you consider even Moses' passage, a remarried woman was spoken of as unclean. Why is that?
     
  13. Istherenotacause

    Istherenotacause New Member

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    Hey Daniel David,

    Man we must be from the same planet! Earth, I think! [​IMG]

    That's exactly right! Matt 19:8 Jesus says "from the begining it was NOT so!" So something changed. Jesus Christ, the same today and yesterday, and forever! He changeth not! [​IMG]

    If those who suggest the "exception clause" would only study their Bible! [​IMG]

    It's not "mean, hateful, uncaring, etc." to seek reconciliation in any matter, is it? :D

    Things will certainly start heating up as others post, I'm sure! [​IMG]
     
  14. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    You have no idea.
     
  15. Headcoveredlady

    Headcoveredlady New Member

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    I am unsure where the part about remarriage is located, could you share the reference that it is ok to remarry if one spouse commits adultery?
     
  16. Jonathan

    Jonathan Member
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    When I am involved in a financial transaction, I receive a bill (a bill or sale, a bill of lading, etc...) that is legal proof of a completed ation. No further legislative action is required.

    When God gave Israel a bill of divorce, it was a completed action.

    I understand your desire to see that no divorce is allowed by Scripture...but you have to jump through hoops to avoid the clear Scriptures that allow divorce...and remarriage.
     
  17. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    Jonathan, it is not wise to interpret Scripture by your modern day experiences.

    Even if you took the route that the bill actually did accomplish the divorce right then, you still would have a problem with the book of Hosea.

    Divorce and remarriage is a position supported only by emotions (as this thread will prove).
     
  18. wizofoz

    wizofoz New Member

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    Am I correct in assuming we are talking about a Christian who divorces and remarries?
     
  19. wizofoz

    wizofoz New Member

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    I took your post to mean that a remarried man needs to ask forgiveness for the sin of being remarried.

    [ April 29, 2003, 09:49 AM: Message edited by: wizofoz ]
     
  20. dianetavegia

    dianetavegia Guest

    Jesus also told us to forgive our brother who sins against us 70 X 7. If the cheating spouse asks for forgiveness, as Christians we are commanded to forgive them and to not hold this against them. Therefore, there would be no divorce.

    If a spouse were to sexually assault my child then I would press charges and divorce him but I would NOT remarry.

    I understand there are some who have been deserted and divorced and scripture says to let them depart.... again, I would not remarry.

    I also know this is a hot topic but I read scripture to say that God hates divorce and I try to honor God's word.

    Diane
     
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